11-05-2009, 07:47 AM
Ok I found what I think is the relevant portion of Sebastian Brock online here...<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://books.google.com.au/books?id=mHewpd0an9IC&pg=PA36&lpg=PA36&dq=Philoxenus+commentary+john&source=bl&ots=kzVRo7n8en&sig=L2eqrfkR5DMxUXDS1JwKmGfTeTI&hl=en&ei=uXvySqTVCcKAkQX9-NC4Aw&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=1&ved=0CAgQ6AEwADgK#v=onepage&q=Philoxenus%20commentary%20john&f=false">http://books.google.com.au/books?id=mHe ... hn&f=false</a><!-- m -->
We can only speculate on the exact reasons why Philoxenus wrote that the peshitta was a translation (most likely because he was told it was), but we can be confident that he was not free to say otherwise.
1."Nestorianism" has been condemned.
2. The faithful are to condemn Nestorius or be anathematised.
3.The Peshitta readings have a "Nestorian" slant.
4.Therefore the Peshitta must necessarily be a corrupt translation.
Sebastian Brock comments
We can only speculate on the exact reasons why Philoxenus wrote that the peshitta was a translation (most likely because he was told it was), but we can be confident that he was not free to say otherwise.
1."Nestorianism" has been condemned.
2. The faithful are to condemn Nestorius or be anathematised.
3.The Peshitta readings have a "Nestorian" slant.
4.Therefore the Peshitta must necessarily be a corrupt translation.
Sebastian Brock comments
Quote:Philoxenus complained that the rather loose rendering of these verses in the peshitta gave scope for "a Nestorian interpretation" (as he called it); accordingly he saw the need for a more exact rendering of the greek