11-04-2009, 11:14 PM
Hello brother,
Thanks for your comments but I think you have missed the main issue, which is:
Q. Why does a Syrian church leader say that the Peshitta is a translation from the Greek? Was he ignorant, lying or telling what he knew of the tradition? This is an important question. Or is Brock mis-quoting him?
You wrote:
"The Philoxenian translation was rejected by the members of the Syriac Orthodox church for whom it was made. And the people continued to use the Peshitto." <snip>
All of these points are true but do not change the question. The Philoxenian translation may have been in error, but what about his testimony to the way the Peshitta was translated from the Greek?
"The Syriac Orthodox Church became Helenised early on, so it is not surprising that they would try to get closer to the Greek, where as the non-Helenised Churches didn't follow suite like the Assyrian Church, the Chaldean Church, and the Syriac Maronite Church."
Very true, and thoroughly explains the reasons for Philoxenus's work, as discussed extensively by Brock. Again, this is not the issue at stake.
"I think Mor Philoxenus' comments have to be taken in light of the the path that the Syriac Orthodox Church chose to follow and the circumstances of that time period."
This is possibly an answer but is very unclear? Are you saying he would lie about the Peshitta's origins? He was still part of the Syrian tradition and even though he was trying to hellenise things a bit would he go this far?? really? in the face of all the then current tradition about Syriac? i find that very hard to believe. Aramiac primacy people at the time would have challenged him surely.
"Here's a link to an earlier post that I had made on this forum:
viewtopic.php?f=1&t=1916&p=11507&hilit=Philoxenian#p11507"
Thanks, that is also pretty much what others like Brock have said. Doesn't change the question.
Can someone please address the issue which seems a little disturbing. A convincing academic answer would be nice:
Q. Why does a Syrian church leader say that the Peshitta is a translation from the Greek? Was he ignorant, lying or telling what he knew of the tradition? This is an important question. Or is Brock mis-quoting him?
in Christ,
Fr. John D'Alton
Thanks for your comments but I think you have missed the main issue, which is:
Q. Why does a Syrian church leader say that the Peshitta is a translation from the Greek? Was he ignorant, lying or telling what he knew of the tradition? This is an important question. Or is Brock mis-quoting him?
You wrote:
"The Philoxenian translation was rejected by the members of the Syriac Orthodox church for whom it was made. And the people continued to use the Peshitto." <snip>
All of these points are true but do not change the question. The Philoxenian translation may have been in error, but what about his testimony to the way the Peshitta was translated from the Greek?
"The Syriac Orthodox Church became Helenised early on, so it is not surprising that they would try to get closer to the Greek, where as the non-Helenised Churches didn't follow suite like the Assyrian Church, the Chaldean Church, and the Syriac Maronite Church."
Very true, and thoroughly explains the reasons for Philoxenus's work, as discussed extensively by Brock. Again, this is not the issue at stake.
"I think Mor Philoxenus' comments have to be taken in light of the the path that the Syriac Orthodox Church chose to follow and the circumstances of that time period."
This is possibly an answer but is very unclear? Are you saying he would lie about the Peshitta's origins? He was still part of the Syrian tradition and even though he was trying to hellenise things a bit would he go this far?? really? in the face of all the then current tradition about Syriac? i find that very hard to believe. Aramiac primacy people at the time would have challenged him surely.
"Here's a link to an earlier post that I had made on this forum:
viewtopic.php?f=1&t=1916&p=11507&hilit=Philoxenian#p11507"
Thanks, that is also pretty much what others like Brock have said. Doesn't change the question.
Can someone please address the issue which seems a little disturbing. A convincing academic answer would be nice:
Q. Why does a Syrian church leader say that the Peshitta is a translation from the Greek? Was he ignorant, lying or telling what he knew of the tradition? This is an important question. Or is Brock mis-quoting him?
in Christ,
Fr. John D'Alton