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John 5:30 'as I hear I judge'?
The Aramaic word for 'hear' also can mean obey.

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It does not quite make sense (or does it? Please enlight me) that Jeshua said: "As I hear so I judge"
Why does it make sense? (I think) Because Jeshua said: "I do nothing of myself..." so, what he did, he did in obeisance to Father. And he did it so perfect, that his judgement would be okay.
When we translate 'hear' it sounds stranges. How can Jeshua judge on base of 'hearing' while he can see everything?

Could it not be translated like: "As I obey I judge" (or I judge as I obey)?

Thanks for any thoughts on this.,

Messages In This Thread
John 5:30 'as I hear I judge'? - by distazo - 08-23-2009, 04:13 PM
Re: John 5:30 'as I hear I judge'? - by Dawid - 08-24-2009, 12:38 AM
Re: John 5:30 'as I hear I judge'? - by sean - 10-02-2009, 01:06 AM

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