07-16-2009, 08:32 AM
Both verses, (Revelation taken from crawford manuscript) have 'Day of the Lord' however, in a different context.
In Corinthians, there is mention of unholy behavior on the Lords supper (Day of the Lord) and in Revelation, John writes that 'at the day of the Lord' he got a vision.
I don't suppose these two 'days of the lord' are not the same, meaning 'Sunday'. Right?
Who can give definite explanation?
Thanks!
In Corinthians, there is mention of unholy behavior on the Lords supper (Day of the Lord) and in Revelation, John writes that 'at the day of the Lord' he got a vision.
I don't suppose these two 'days of the lord' are not the same, meaning 'Sunday'. Right?
Who can give definite explanation?
Thanks!