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1 Peter 4:1 dead or suffering ?
#3
shlom lokh oH Jerzy,

enarxe Wrote:Aramaic has there "dmoet", a form of "mwt" which is "dead" or "dying". Here is my little grammar question now - how are you reading Aramaic here - is it "dead" or rather "dying"?

Note that Peshitta is simpler (!) and makes much more sense in the wider context - yes, "if you are dead you do not sin".
[edited one sentence to clarify what I am looking for]

I would render it as "dies"

Translation => "... for every one who dies in the flesh, hath ceased from all sins."

push bashlomo,
keefa-morun
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Messages In This Thread
1 Peter 4:1 dead or suffering ? - by enarxe - 10-02-2008, 12:12 AM
Re: 1 Peter 4:1 dead or suffering ? - by abudar2000 - 10-02-2008, 05:39 AM
Re: 1 Peter 4:1 dead or suffering ? - by sean - 10-07-2008, 04:17 AM
Re: 1 Peter 4:1 dead or suffering ? - by sean - 10-07-2008, 04:19 AM
Re: 1 Peter 4:1 dead or suffering ? - by ograabe - 10-07-2008, 01:10 PM

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