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1 Peter 4:1 dead or suffering ?
#1
Shalom,

I originally wanted to post it in the Mistranslations section but it seems like whenever I try to approach it I'm too tired to dig deep and check everything so I thought that will check some grammar with others here.

Here we go:

1Peter 4:1 If then the Messiah hath suffered for you in the flesh, do ye also arm yourselves with the same mind: for every one that is dead in his body, hath ceased from all sins, [Murdock]

1Peter 4:1 Forasmuch then as Christ hath suffered for us in the flesh, arm yourselves likewise with the same mind: for he that hath suffered in the flesh hath ceased from sin; [KJV, and all other Greek-text based English translations]

Can you see the difference ?

The Greek word for "suffer" for the phrase in bold above is "pathon", which is II Aoristus Active Participium of "pascho" - suffer, endure. Vulgata has it as "qui passus est carne", i.e. "whose body has passed (or endured)" (my own poor translation), passus here is from "patior" (from which also English "patience" comes, I believe).

Aramaic has there "dmoet", a form of "mwt" which is "dead" or "dying". Here is my little grammar question now - how are you reading Aramaic here - is it "dead" or rather "dying"?

Note that Peshitta is simpler (!) and makes much more sense in the wider context - yes, "if you are dead you do not sin".

Thanks in advance for any help,
Jerzy
[edited one sentence to clarify what I am looking for]
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Messages In This Thread
1 Peter 4:1 dead or suffering ? - by enarxe - 10-02-2008, 12:12 AM
Re: 1 Peter 4:1 dead or suffering ? - by sean - 10-07-2008, 04:17 AM
Re: 1 Peter 4:1 dead or suffering ? - by sean - 10-07-2008, 04:19 AM
Re: 1 Peter 4:1 dead or suffering ? - by ograabe - 10-07-2008, 01:10 PM

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