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Revelation Good case for Aramaic Primacy?? Come on now
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I have noticed that Peshitta Primacists(I am getting there too. Patience) have used some "split word" examples in Revelation(written by John the Apostle) . From what I have learned here, mainly from a post by Stephen, is that Revelation and 4 more other New Testament books are copies of Greek originals. And, again to my knowledge, this is pretty much beyond dispute by both Aramaic Primacists and Greek Primacists. What is going on here in using the Apoclypse to support Peshitta Primacy???? Both camps say that the manuscript copies are much later from an orginal Greek pen. Whether the Apocolypse(Revelation of John) should be included in the inspirational New Tesament canon along with the other 4 "disputed books" is not a matter of linguistics, in my opinion, but a matter of theology. Please, any comments.

Sincerely,

Mike Karoules
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Revelation Good case for Aramaic Primacy?? Come on now - by Mike Kar - 08-27-2008, 09:12 PM

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