08-18-2008, 07:54 PM
Dear Paul, thanks for your response. As you say, the actions of the scribes in not writing the Name certainly predates the NT. During the Babylonian dispersion many hundreds of years earlier than the NT in fact. Of course, this was an enactment to the scribes by decree from the Rabbi's as we all know so well. That's why I asked the question about Rabbinical decrees.
Going back to my original question I was more concerned that the Name has not been transliterated from Hebrew to Aramaic AND that the translator has used pagan words like Lord and God in the English. Surely you will agree if we are to render the Name (s) correctly this will preserve the efficacy of YHWH's words to Moshe? By not using them, we act to 'change' what YHWH had imposed?
Shalom,
Mark
Going back to my original question I was more concerned that the Name has not been transliterated from Hebrew to Aramaic AND that the translator has used pagan words like Lord and God in the English. Surely you will agree if we are to render the Name (s) correctly this will preserve the efficacy of YHWH's words to Moshe? By not using them, we act to 'change' what YHWH had imposed?
Shalom,
Mark