08-12-2008, 09:53 PM
Hey folks. Sorry, but I was in a bit of a hurry my last reply and made a quick comment and question. It goes back to Ephesians 1:13 and really a study of the Holy S. when it is associated with the word "Promise" like in Acts 2:33, Acts 2:39, Luke 24:49(". . . lo, I send the Promise of my Father on you. . .") Acts 1:4 , Ephesians 1:13 and Galatians 3:14.
It appears that we may be dealing with two different words here but the same concept. Well, for example, the word for "Promise" in Luke 24:49 is not the same as in Acts 1:4 but Yeshua is apparantly talking about the same thing. Remember, you are dealing with someone that very well may be making a transition from Greek to Aramaic.
(1) Is the nature of Aramaic more/much more inflected language than that of Greek?? About the same??
(2) About the "Promise:" Can we tell from the Aramaic in Galatians 3:14 if Paul is talking in reference to the Holy S. Himself or that which the Holy S. gives?? Here is my Greek translation into English: ". . .that the blessing of Abraham might come upon the Gentiles in Messiah Yeshua, that we might receive the PROMISE of the Sp. through faith." In the Greek text this question is debated. I once pointed this out to a preacher that we receive the Holy S. Himself who comes and lives inside upon our faith in Yeshua. But he made the argument that here (Gal 3:16) it is not the Holy S. Himself but that which the Holy Sp. gives. Without confusing anyone I am wondering if the Aramaic text would be clearer on this and give us a definite answer. ??
(3) In having a pretty good access now to the Aramaic concordance and checking out common root words in different passages I sure do notice alot of differences in spelling for just one word. I mean, in doing a word study and seeing elsewhere a particular word would be in other passages(mainly not neccessarily the same exact word but the same base word or root word) I notice differences in the way these words are spelled in Aramaic (albeit having the same root word) and yet, for example if the morpholigical break down is practically identical am I pretty safe that this is the same word and WORD MEANING?? If I should study a word like "abide" and locate where in all the other passages this same word appears at its ROOT level and yet it is spelled differently but yet with the same morphilogical breakdown am I safe to say that it is the same Word?? Example With "abide" (3rd person - Masculine - Plural. Active Participle - Paiel) and going to another passage for "abide" with a different number and the spelling is different (sometimes by 2 or 3 letters) but yet the only morpholigical difference would be (2nd person - Masculine - Plural. Active Participle - Paiel) am I safe to say this is the same word or word meaning?? And I hope I have not confused anyone here. My querstion here could be related to questiion #1 in how much the Aramaic is an inflected language. This will further help me to do word studies on Steve's site and be sure that I am looking at the same words (in Aramaic) in different passages. Thank you so much.
Cordially,
Mike Karoules
Atlanta, Georgia area
It appears that we may be dealing with two different words here but the same concept. Well, for example, the word for "Promise" in Luke 24:49 is not the same as in Acts 1:4 but Yeshua is apparantly talking about the same thing. Remember, you are dealing with someone that very well may be making a transition from Greek to Aramaic.
(1) Is the nature of Aramaic more/much more inflected language than that of Greek?? About the same??
(2) About the "Promise:" Can we tell from the Aramaic in Galatians 3:14 if Paul is talking in reference to the Holy S. Himself or that which the Holy S. gives?? Here is my Greek translation into English: ". . .that the blessing of Abraham might come upon the Gentiles in Messiah Yeshua, that we might receive the PROMISE of the Sp. through faith." In the Greek text this question is debated. I once pointed this out to a preacher that we receive the Holy S. Himself who comes and lives inside upon our faith in Yeshua. But he made the argument that here (Gal 3:16) it is not the Holy S. Himself but that which the Holy Sp. gives. Without confusing anyone I am wondering if the Aramaic text would be clearer on this and give us a definite answer. ??
(3) In having a pretty good access now to the Aramaic concordance and checking out common root words in different passages I sure do notice alot of differences in spelling for just one word. I mean, in doing a word study and seeing elsewhere a particular word would be in other passages(mainly not neccessarily the same exact word but the same base word or root word) I notice differences in the way these words are spelled in Aramaic (albeit having the same root word) and yet, for example if the morpholigical break down is practically identical am I pretty safe that this is the same word and WORD MEANING?? If I should study a word like "abide" and locate where in all the other passages this same word appears at its ROOT level and yet it is spelled differently but yet with the same morphilogical breakdown am I safe to say that it is the same Word?? Example With "abide" (3rd person - Masculine - Plural. Active Participle - Paiel) and going to another passage for "abide" with a different number and the spelling is different (sometimes by 2 or 3 letters) but yet the only morpholigical difference would be (2nd person - Masculine - Plural. Active Participle - Paiel) am I safe to say this is the same word or word meaning?? And I hope I have not confused anyone here. My querstion here could be related to questiion #1 in how much the Aramaic is an inflected language. This will further help me to do word studies on Steve's site and be sure that I am looking at the same words (in Aramaic) in different passages. Thank you so much.
Cordially,
Mike Karoules
Atlanta, Georgia area