Variations in the Peshitta??

[Mike Kar]

[b]Greetings and hello to everyone. My name is Mike and I live in Georgia. I consider myself a pretty serious Bible student. I have been studying the New Testament, with the Greek, for about a year or more now. I mean, w/o knowing all the nuances of the Greek I have been "getting into it." Peshitta Primacy is something new to me and I sense I am heading in that direction. I want to let you know that some of my experiences in studying the Greek has not been good. Oh, for a year or so now I have been using the New King James Bible. It has footnotes at the bottom of just about every single page in the New Testament. One aspect that has been a sore spot for me are the notes which say something to this nature: "The NU-Text does not contain this phrase;" or "The NU-Text omits this verse while the M-Text includes it;" or "The NU-Text omits this word," or "the NU-Text omits the rest of this sentance." Sure enough, when I would get on a computor and go online to some of these NT Greek sites this would confirm what the NKJV notes would say. This would leave me wondering if this sentance or this phrase or this word is included in the Bible at all!! Well, this as been a source of frustration for me at times. I am sick of it and hoping, but we'll see, if the Peshitta's holds true to its' claims. So, having said this I would like to ask you all if there any passages or places in the NT Peshitta that has this same dilemna as the Greek New Testament manuscripts do?? I mean are there certain places (anywhere) where some Aramaic manuscripts have word or phrase additions in certain passages while in other manuscripts where they're not included?? I mean, just one or two?? May I put forth ONE example just to start?? How about the account of the woman caught in adultery (John &;50 to John 8:1)?? We all know in the Greek texts we get that same old song and dance where certian family of texts contain this story while in another family of texts (in the Greek tradition) this story is included. Do we have the same debate in the Peshitta??

I would appreciate your input as I, being new to this field, would like to know what I should expect. I have come across some statements that the manuscripts of the Aramaic Peshitta is approximately 99.8% accurate and the only instances of variences in the Peshitta are not missing words but occasional mispellings here and there. Please tell me if where there might be some missing words or phrases in the manuscripts of the Peshitta. I believe they are minimal from what I read but I really am just throwing an arrow in the wind. Is there such a thing as 2 or 3 family of texts within the Aramaic Peshitta framework?? Thank you folks for your hard work and dilegence in reference to the Peshitta. Thank you for your time.

Sincerely,

Mike G. Karoules