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Did the Greeks translate 'stauros and xulon' from Aramaic?
#1
The writer Luke used 'stauros' in Lk 9:23, Lk 14:27 and Lk 23:26 but in the book of Acts Luke uses the word 'xulon' for the same thing, Acts 5:30, 10:39 and 13:29.
Can anyone tell me whether the Greek writers/translators were translating from the Aramaic? Perhaps the Aramaic can clear up the confusion over the 'shape issue?' And why Luke used two different words (having the same effect) in two different books?
Thanks for your input.

Shalom,
Mark
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Did the Greeks translate 'stauros and xulon' from Aramaic? - by markt - 06-22-2008, 10:19 PM

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