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John 1:41
Hello David!!

But looking at this through the lens of a Greek Primacist (I am no saying I am one as of now) or through another window I may not see the problem here. All John could be doing was writing the common name that the disciples used to call Jesus, that is Messiah. But to clarify what he meant to his Greek audience he gave the "translation" statement. I don't see how this could be solid proof in favor of an Aramaic Primacy position. thank-you, David. So one might ask why would John do this in the first place? why would he not just say something like, ". . . we have found the "Kristos" . . ." My own interpretation to this question would be because Messiah/Messian was a popular name to those Hebrews and was used quite often when the disciples addressed Jesus in Hebrew/or Aramaic. So John just wanted to write out the title to educateinform his readers Just food for thought.


Messages In This Thread
John 1:41 - by judge - 04-09-2008, 07:53 AM
Re: John 1:41 - by gbausc - 04-09-2008, 04:22 PM
Re: John 1:41 - by Mike Kar - 08-27-2008, 07:09 PM

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