01-26-2008, 03:30 AM
Shlama Akhi Albion,
The Byzantine Greek is very similar to the Textus Receptus which was used for the King James Version, and is used for the New King James Version.
Both of these Greek texts is generally closer to The Peshitta text, especially the critical Western Peshitta edition, since it has John 7:53-8:11 and the Western five books, and the other verses I listed in my former post. However, the Eastern Peshitta is also supported by the thousands of Byzantine Greek mss. more frequently than the handful of Alexandrian Greek mss. used by most modern English versions. Some Peshitta books are closer to the Byzantine than others.
The Peshitta Gospels are more Byzantine like than the book of Acts, for example. The biggest difference between the Alexandrian and Byzantine Greek is that the Alexandrian has about 2500 fewer words than the Byzantine. That is quite a difference. The Peshitta supports the Byzantine text in most of those readings which the Alexandrian lacks. Mark 16:9-20 is a case in point. The Byzantine Greek has this passage. Alexandrian mss. do not. This is a difference of twelve verses of scripture text in one chapter! The Peshitta has these verses in both Eastern and Western editions.
Most omissions and additions are not whole verses. Usually they involve one word or at most, a short two or three word phrase.
A comparison I have done in Mark has the following:
The same stats are found in the book of Acts. This means that The Peshitta disagrees with The Alexandrian text more than 3 times as often as with the Byzantine Greek. It also means that in more than 50% of verses, the Peshitta displays readings found in no other Greek or Latin text type. This shows two things about the Peshitta:
1. It agrees more much more closely with the Byzantine Greek than with the Alexandrian.
2. It is not translated from any Greek text known, or The Latin Vulgate.
Nuff said?
Dave
The Byzantine Greek is very similar to the Textus Receptus which was used for the King James Version, and is used for the New King James Version.
Both of these Greek texts is generally closer to The Peshitta text, especially the critical Western Peshitta edition, since it has John 7:53-8:11 and the Western five books, and the other verses I listed in my former post. However, the Eastern Peshitta is also supported by the thousands of Byzantine Greek mss. more frequently than the handful of Alexandrian Greek mss. used by most modern English versions. Some Peshitta books are closer to the Byzantine than others.
The Peshitta Gospels are more Byzantine like than the book of Acts, for example. The biggest difference between the Alexandrian and Byzantine Greek is that the Alexandrian has about 2500 fewer words than the Byzantine. That is quite a difference. The Peshitta supports the Byzantine text in most of those readings which the Alexandrian lacks. Mark 16:9-20 is a case in point. The Byzantine Greek has this passage. Alexandrian mss. do not. This is a difference of twelve verses of scripture text in one chapter! The Peshitta has these verses in both Eastern and Western editions.
Most omissions and additions are not whole verses. Usually they involve one word or at most, a short two or three word phrase.
A comparison I have done in Mark has the following:
Quote:In Mark chapter 4 to 5:21, 33 times the Peshitta displays a unique text out of the 62 verses (53% of the verses). Out of 62 verses, 17 times The Peshitta disagrees with The Westcott Hort text reading and agrees more closely with the other texts. Five times The Peshitta differs with The Byzantine or Textus Receptus text more than from the others. Five times it disagrees with Jerome???s Latin Vulgate (A.D. 405).
The same stats are found in the book of Acts. This means that The Peshitta disagrees with The Alexandrian text more than 3 times as often as with the Byzantine Greek. It also means that in more than 50% of verses, the Peshitta displays readings found in no other Greek or Latin text type. This shows two things about the Peshitta:
1. It agrees more much more closely with the Byzantine Greek than with the Alexandrian.
2. It is not translated from any Greek text known, or The Latin Vulgate.
Nuff said?
Dave