01-09-2008, 01:47 PM
Shlama,
I have a question that might sound stupid, it deals with linguistic or pronunciation changes from Hebrew to Aramaic over a period of time. What I mean is, there are certain words, for example, in Hebrew and Aramaic versions of Daniel that, while they mean the same thing, are spelled slightly different from each other. For example, Hebrew Daniel uses the word "anah" (pronoun, "I") while the Aramaic has "ani" (see Daniel 4:1)
Please indulge me here for a moment... Was there a change sometime in the ending of certain words that originally ended in "ah" to "os"? If so, about when did do you believe this occured?
Also, within the same line of thought, we know the Estrangela script is very ancient. Just how far back does it go? I can't seem to find any scholarly information on this particular script. I have talked to others who say the Aramaic Scriptures were not originally written with the Estrangela script but with something else, and that the Estrangela script, while ancient, is still not the original that was used in composing the Peshitta. They contend that when the Church of the East took over the Peshitta and began making copies for their churches, that they used the Estrangela script, and that the originals (in whatever script they were written in) no longer exist.
Thanks for putting up with my elementary questions on this topic. The reason I ask these questions is because I have seen no clear answer from anyone as of to date. This would help in some of my research as well. Thank you.
Ya'aqub
I have a question that might sound stupid, it deals with linguistic or pronunciation changes from Hebrew to Aramaic over a period of time. What I mean is, there are certain words, for example, in Hebrew and Aramaic versions of Daniel that, while they mean the same thing, are spelled slightly different from each other. For example, Hebrew Daniel uses the word "anah" (pronoun, "I") while the Aramaic has "ani" (see Daniel 4:1)
Please indulge me here for a moment... Was there a change sometime in the ending of certain words that originally ended in "ah" to "os"? If so, about when did do you believe this occured?
Also, within the same line of thought, we know the Estrangela script is very ancient. Just how far back does it go? I can't seem to find any scholarly information on this particular script. I have talked to others who say the Aramaic Scriptures were not originally written with the Estrangela script but with something else, and that the Estrangela script, while ancient, is still not the original that was used in composing the Peshitta. They contend that when the Church of the East took over the Peshitta and began making copies for their churches, that they used the Estrangela script, and that the originals (in whatever script they were written in) no longer exist.
Thanks for putting up with my elementary questions on this topic. The reason I ask these questions is because I have seen no clear answer from anyone as of to date. This would help in some of my research as well. Thank you.
Ya'aqub