John 19:19 (YHWH?)

[yaaqub]

like Matthew's exclusive use of AURAYTA for Torah instead of NAMUSA everywhere else

Shlama Andrew and everyone else,

Sorry for butting in, but I something Andrew wrote kinda' stuck out a bit.

From reading the Peshitta copy that I have Matthew uses the Greek word "namusa" in Matthew 5:17. I was just doing some research on this today. The editor's note in the back of my Aramaic Peshitta acknowledges the use of Greek loan words throughout the Peshitta, but my main question is, Andrew, was this a mistake when you said Matthew used "Aurayta" exclusively, or I am misunderstanding your comment?

I see the word "namusa" used in Matthew 5:17 and 18 instead of "aurayta".

Also in these verses...

Matthew 7:12 ???????? ?????? ?????????????????? ???????????????? ???????????????????????? ???????????? ?????????? ?????????????? ???????????????? ???????? ?????????????????? ?????????????? ?????????? ?????????? ?????????? ???????????????? ?????????????????? ??

Matthew 22:35 ?????????????? ???????? ?????????????? ???????????????? ???????????????? ?????????? ???????????? ?????? ??

Thanks in advance.