07-06-2005, 09:36 AM
Hmmmm, you want me to take it outside of your post (which I sorry that it heated up on the other), yet you want me to answer you here?
Well,....have I ever said that none of the books could have been written in syriac/aramaic? I do give preference to the greek as it has a more solid base to stand on.
I do accept the old syriac version as a comparison as it has greek backgrounds, but I never closed the door to one of the letters possibly having a syriac background. I just haven't seen one yet that I could say with certainty, yes this one has the witness to it as being closest to the original.
Also, I'm not sure if it is that text or in another gospel, when Jesus calls out in aramaic, the people do not understand what He says, they make a comment about Him calling Elijah or someone. My question for you is why? If this particular language is as widespread as the folks on here go about saying so, then why did the crowd not understand Him?
Some food for thought there.
Well,....have I ever said that none of the books could have been written in syriac/aramaic? I do give preference to the greek as it has a more solid base to stand on.
I do accept the old syriac version as a comparison as it has greek backgrounds, but I never closed the door to one of the letters possibly having a syriac background. I just haven't seen one yet that I could say with certainty, yes this one has the witness to it as being closest to the original.
Also, I'm not sure if it is that text or in another gospel, when Jesus calls out in aramaic, the people do not understand what He says, they make a comment about Him calling Elijah or someone. My question for you is why? If this particular language is as widespread as the folks on here go about saying so, then why did the crowd not understand Him?
Some food for thought there.