Jakob and James

[Chris Weimer]

Shalom Dave

You ask:

Why would The Peshitta use "Yaqob" consistently throughout, if it were translated from the different Greek forms ? bwq(y.

Because Aramaic only has one form for the word. Adding a Greek ending to an already existing Aramaic word would be useless. However, the question for Aramaic primacists is why the Greek would bother to distinguish the two if it was translated from a text using the same word for both of them? The answer: It wouldn't. It was written in Greek.

best regards,

Chris