02-22-2005, 12:35 AM
February 21, 2005
Now I wonder, if the Greek text does not agree with the Peshitta text for Luke 2:14, why does the KJV agee with the Peshitta? Lamsa, Murdock, and the King James Version are all essentially identical! However, it seems that the Textus Receptus (Majority text) does not support the KJV translation which was made from that text.
Otto
Now I wonder, if the Greek text does not agree with the Peshitta text for Luke 2:14, why does the KJV agee with the Peshitta? Lamsa, Murdock, and the King James Version are all essentially identical! However, it seems that the Textus Receptus (Majority text) does not support the KJV translation which was made from that text.
Otto