01-03-2005, 07:24 AM
January 3, 2005
Whoever wrote these comments apparently reads Greek better than Aramaic. These arguments seem to be based primarily on the Greek translations, not on the original Aramaic of the Peshitta.
Mark 15:16 in the Peshitta just says ???...and the soldiers led him away in the courtyard that was the Praetorium...??? SEEMS ONLY TO BE DESCRIPTIVE OF THE COURTYARD. Of course, Mark was writing to northern Aramaic speaking Christians who were not familiar with Jerusalem or the southern dialect and many if not most of whom were probably not Jews. That???s why he even has to translate some of Jesus??? spoken dialect into northern Aramaic. Where does it say anything about a Roman audience? To assume a Roman audience is circular reasoning. Anyway, why not write in Latin for a Roman audience?
Since Mark was writing to a northern Aramaic speaking audience many of whom were probably not Jews, it would be natural for him to clearly explain about times and places.
Mark 15:42 in the Peshitta say ???...on Friday evening which is before the Sabbath...??? means that it was Friday evening before sundown. Friday evening after sundown IS already the Sabbath. This is just a clear statement that he took action on Friday before the Sabbath had started not an explanation of the Sabbath.
In John 20:24 gives Thomas??? name as ??? [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]0mw0t[/font] (Tooma) who was called [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]0m0t[/font] (Tama) the twin...??? This is a word play on his name, not a repeat of the name.
In John 20:16 the Peshitta has ???... and said to him in Hebrew Rabbuli ( [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]Ylwbr[/font] ) which means Teacher ( [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]0nplm[/font] )....??? APPARENTLY JOHN BELIEVED ARAMAIC SPEAKING READERS MAY NOT KNOW HEBREW SINCE THEY ARE DIFFERENT LANGUAGES BUT WANTED TO QUOTE MARYAM EXACTLY.
As for the last comment, I don???t know why Zorba chosen certain Greek words to translate Luke???s Aramaic text.
Otto
Whoever wrote these comments apparently reads Greek better than Aramaic. These arguments seem to be based primarily on the Greek translations, not on the original Aramaic of the Peshitta.
Mark 15:16 in the Peshitta just says ???...and the soldiers led him away in the courtyard that was the Praetorium...??? SEEMS ONLY TO BE DESCRIPTIVE OF THE COURTYARD. Of course, Mark was writing to northern Aramaic speaking Christians who were not familiar with Jerusalem or the southern dialect and many if not most of whom were probably not Jews. That???s why he even has to translate some of Jesus??? spoken dialect into northern Aramaic. Where does it say anything about a Roman audience? To assume a Roman audience is circular reasoning. Anyway, why not write in Latin for a Roman audience?
Since Mark was writing to a northern Aramaic speaking audience many of whom were probably not Jews, it would be natural for him to clearly explain about times and places.
Mark 15:42 in the Peshitta say ???...on Friday evening which is before the Sabbath...??? means that it was Friday evening before sundown. Friday evening after sundown IS already the Sabbath. This is just a clear statement that he took action on Friday before the Sabbath had started not an explanation of the Sabbath.
In John 20:24 gives Thomas??? name as ??? [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]0mw0t[/font] (Tooma) who was called [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]0m0t[/font] (Tama) the twin...??? This is a word play on his name, not a repeat of the name.
In John 20:16 the Peshitta has ???... and said to him in Hebrew Rabbuli ( [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]Ylwbr[/font] ) which means Teacher ( [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]0nplm[/font] )....??? APPARENTLY JOHN BELIEVED ARAMAIC SPEAKING READERS MAY NOT KNOW HEBREW SINCE THEY ARE DIFFERENT LANGUAGES BUT WANTED TO QUOTE MARYAM EXACTLY.
As for the last comment, I don???t know why Zorba chosen certain Greek words to translate Luke???s Aramaic text.
Otto