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Question for Christopher Lancaster
#1
October 19, 2004

Dear Chris:

In your book "Was the New Testament Really Written in Greek?" you defend Peshitta primacy. However, several of your evidence citations involve the book of Revelation which is not part of the Peshitta. For example, on page 16 you cite an Aramaic word in Revelation 6:15 and on page 20 you cite an Aramaic word in Revelation 2:20.

Since there is no book of Revelation in the Peshitta and no primary Aramaic version of Revelation, what version are you using and why?

Thanks...

Otto
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Messages In This Thread
Question for Christopher Lancaster - by ograabe - 10-19-2004, 08:36 PM
[No subject] - by byrnesey - 10-24-2004, 10:05 PM
[No subject] - by ograabe - 10-24-2004, 10:24 PM

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