07-22-2011, 10:05 AM
Hi, though unfortunatly don?t know Aramaic, but also found the "our Lord" / "the Lord" variation between Aramaic and Greek when reading the Gospel texts according to peshitta.org English translations. So also to me "our Lord" seems to be more "authentical", as if its told by some one, who had been there with "our Lord". It?s just my impression.
Or is it grammatical question, that in Aramaic there always would have to be a personal pronoun suffix with a noune? That I don?t know.
Thanks for putting this question here.
Dani
Or is it grammatical question, that in Aramaic there always would have to be a personal pronoun suffix with a noune? That I don?t know.
Thanks for putting this question here.
Dani

