Peshitta into English

[The Thadman]

Lamsa mistranslated the Aramaic, where the other translators were influenced by the Greek (as they saw the Greek as authoritative, and if the Greek said it meant "jump" they would use "jump").

The weight of lexical evidence rests upon "why have you allowed me?" (along the reasoning in english: "What reason am I here for?") as I see it :-)

Shlomo,
-Steve-o

Okay, why would a native Assyrian who was fluent in Aramaic make such a mistake? Will you give me the entire correct translation from Matthew 27:46 from the Peshitta? How much of Lamsa's translation is accurate? Thank you for taking time to help me learn more.

Because he, like everyone else (no one excluded), had an agenda (I hate sounding cynical...). This agenda is very apparent, for example, in his treating of demon posessed figures in scripture (he overruled the supernatural and called them "lunatics") and the hundreds of "idioms" he supposedly recorded when there is no corroborating evidence for them. There were many holes in his work which all of us here are doing our best to patch up, as he is one of the most well known "founders" of the modern movement, but made blunders of such grandeur so much as to make Greek AND Aramaic primacists cry. :-)

"And at about the 9th hour he cried out in a loud voice, "My God! My God! For what [reason] have you allowed me?" if my memory serves me correctly. The root in question "shvaq" (of shvaqtonee, 2nd person masculine singular perfect tense (shvaqth) w/1st person personal pronoun suffix (-onee)) means, in order of most common use in the rest of the Aramaic NT, "to allow, to forgive, to let alone, to leave."

Shlomo,
-Steve-o