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Revelation 1:13
#1
Shlama Akhay,

I felt something stirring within me to check out the Aramaic words used in the Peshitto of Revelation 1:13 at the peshitta.com site. At first I thought...well..why post something like this at peshitta.org?
Different things really struck me about this verse. For one thing, I couldn't find an Aramaic-to-English translation that used the word 'ephod' which is what the Aramaic word [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]0dwp0[/font] means! Murdock has 'clothed to the feet'-----Etheridge has 'clothed to the foot'---Lamsa has 'wearing a long vestment'. Victor Alexander has 'completely attired' and in the footnote--"That wore covering attire"--Or: long robe.
The important thing that is missing here to the casual reader is that Yeshua is not 'clothed to the foot' in just any garment. The garment according to peshitta.com is the priestly garment called the 'ephod'.
Another thing that really struck me is that we might have a Palestinian Aramaic loanword in an Assyrian Aramaic text! I say that because Smith's Compendious tells us that the usual word in Syriac for 'ephod' is [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]Fdp [/font]. [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]0dwp0[/font] is listed in the Compendious as 'Heb. f.' (Hebrew feminine)!!
To appreciate the full picture, soak all this in from 1:12 & 13---Yeshua is wearing a priestly garment, the ephod, and with a golden girdle about his breast, in the midst of the seven golden menorahs...

Shlama w'Burkate, Larry Kelsey
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#2
Shlama to all,

Another witness to the fact that [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]0dwp0[/font] is a very unusual word to find in the Peshitto and that the usual word is [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]Fdp[/font] is found at the CAL site.

pdh N pdt)
1 JLAGal sleeve (?)
2 Syr priestly garment

Akha Larry
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#3
Yup - that's definitely not an Aramaic word. Looks like a transliteration of a Hebrew word, not a loan-word ( the loan-word is [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]Fdp[/font] )

Maybe the Peshitto Revelation (made by Thomas of Harkel~Philoxenus of Mabbug) was translated from a Hebrew source text rather than a Greek one.
+Shamasha Paul bar-Shimun de'Beth-Younan
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#4
While on the subject, what about the Crawford? Is it that much different?
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#5
Crawford literally reads like 99% the same as the Peshitto, word-for-word and line-for-line. In some places, it chooses a different word or phrase, almost like someone took the Peshitto version and revised it.

The two texts are definitely related, how exactly I'm not sure.
+Shamasha Paul bar-Shimun de'Beth-Younan
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#6
Paul Younan Wrote:Yup - that's definitely not an Aramaic word. Looks like a transliteration of a Hebrew word, not a loan-word ( the loan-word is [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]Fdp[/font] )

Maybe the Peshitto Revelation (made by Thomas of Harkel~Philoxenus of Mabbug) was translated from a Hebrew source text rather than a Greek one.

The simpler answer is that, when the Syriac Orthodox Church translated the Greek text, they felt free to insert a transliterated Hebrew word, rather than a straight translation, as is often done in various modern Messianic versions of the NT even by people who hold to Greek primacy. There are no Semitic originals of the Western Five, because if there were:

1. They would have been included in the Peshitta.
2. Those books would not have been so hotly disputed even in the West.
3. God would not have let the originals become lost.

Shlama, Craig
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#7
Good points, Akhan Craig.

I so wish there was a Semitic original to Revelation. I love that book.

We do consider it as a "Pious Writing", so the study of it is encouraged. It's just that there are no "readings" from it during the "liturgical cycle", or "Khudra" as we say.
+Shamasha Paul bar-Shimun de'Beth-Younan
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#8
Paul Younan Wrote:I so wish there was a Semitic original to Revelation. I love that book.

We do consider it as a "Pious Writing", so the study of it is encouraged. It's just that there are no "readings" from it during the "liturgical cycle", or "Khudra" as we say.

I'm skeptical that this was the original position of the CoE, instead of a later convenient position of compormise (giving those books the maximum esteem possible for non-canonical works) with the other Aramaic speaking churches and Graeco-Roman Christianity. Revelation in particular was widely rejected as either inspired or apostolic at any level, *especially* in the East, and it becomes very hard to explain that if the current CoE position on the Western Five was the original. It seems even many Greek Christians in the eastern half of the Roman empire were influenced by the CoE in this matter.

Shlama, Craig
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#9
True. The "Pious Writings" category, being just under "Inspired Scripture" (but above "Hymns") probably was a position adopted later so as to not seem so rigid about the issue.

They still are, and have always been considered non-canonical and un-inspired. Hence their exclusion from liturgical use, and from the canon of the Peshitta.

But the CoE has never outright forbidden the study of them....or done any "book burning" so frequent in the western realms.
+Shamasha Paul bar-Shimun de'Beth-Younan
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#10
on the crawford, do you feel it was just a revamp? Is it better or not?
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#11
I think it's a revamp. The manuscript is a lot older than the Peshitto.
+Shamasha Paul bar-Shimun de'Beth-Younan
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#12
Larry,

My name is Dave Bauscher. I am new to the group.

I find the Aramaic "0dwp0" (Ephoda) in Hosea 3:4 of The Peshitta. This is apparently the only place in The OT to find it.In fact The same phrase used in Rev. 1:13 is used in Hosea 3:4("Labish Ephoda") -"wearing an ephod".
The Hosea verse is a prophesy of a time when Israel would have no priesthood and no king:
"For the children of Israel shall abide many days without a king, and without a prince, and without a sacrifice, and without an image, and without an ephod, and without teraphim."
Is it not intriguing that in Rev. 1:13 of The Peshitto is a revelation of The Messiah wearing the ephod of high priest and also bearing royal power -(holding seven stars in his right hand) at a time when Israel had been stripped of earthly king , priesthood and temple ?
This is a message of comfort and an offer of hope to Israel.
Their true government and covenant is perfected and eternally realized in Jesus Christ and true Israel is the spiritual union of those who recognize and love Him here on earth.
The Peshitto in Rev. has at least a couple more uniquely Semitic readings that may point to a semitic original:
9:11 And they had a king over them, which is the angel of the bottomless pit, whose name in the Hebrew tongue is Abaddon, but in the Greek tongue hath his name Apollyon. {Apollyon: that is to say, A destroyer}
ars tya hl ams tyamraw wdbe tyarbe hmsd amwhtd hkalm aklm Nwhyle tyaw 11
The Aramaic of Peshitto has : ars tya hl ams tyamraw- "His Aramaic name is Sra." -("destroyer,corrupter").
16:16 And he gathered them together into a place called in the Hebrew tongue Armageddon.
wdgm tyarbe arqtmd artal Nwna snknw 16 -Aramaic
16 kai sunhgagen autouv eiv ton topon ton kaloumenon ebraisti armagedwn -Greek
Aramaic has "Meggido", which is the famous field of battle found many times in the OT.
All Greek editions seem to have "armagedwn", which name is not in the OT and does not seem to follow good Hebrew spelling. There is a place called "Har megiddo", but that is not the famous Biblical plain referred to here. It is a mountain fortress.
These and others seem to indicate that revelation is a semitic book composed in Aramaic or Hebrew.

Dave B.
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