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"Master YHWH" and "I AM"s in the Peshitta
#61
Do Hebrews ch. 6
Reply
#62
I am unsure what you are referring to. Which verse(s) in Hebrews 6?
Reply
#63
Semiticism: doubling of a word

Most notably, an Aramaic--> Greek (and later into English) rendering of Mark 4:41 has this in a narrative section. In the OT, it appears to be two similar verbs, whereas in the NT sometimes it's that (I'm thinking of "answered and said"), but sometimes it's two similar words with one a verb and one a noun.

Genesis 2:16-17 Young's Literal Translation (YLT)
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=genesis+2%3A16-17&version=KJV;HCSB;GNV;YLT">https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?s ... SB;GNV;YLT</a><!-- m -->
And Jehovah God layeth a charge on the man, saying,
'Of every tree of the garden
eating thou dost eat;
and of the tree of knowledge of good and evil,
thou dost not eat of it,
for in the day of thine eating of it ?
dying thou dost die.'

'eating you do eat' = you may freely eat
'dying you do die' = surely/assuredly/certainly you will die

Genesis 18:10 (YLT)
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=genesis+18%3A10&version=KJV;HCSB;GNV;YLT">https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?s ... SB;GNV;YLT</a><!-- m -->
and he saith,
'returning I return unto thee,
about the time of life, and lo,
to Sarah thy wife a son.'

'returning I return' = I will assuredly return

Genesis 43:3 (YLT)
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=genesis+43%3A3&version=KJV;HCSB;NIV;YLT">https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?s ... SB;NIV;YLT</a><!-- m -->
And Judah speaketh unto him, saying,
'The man protesting protested to us, saying,
Ye do not see my face without your brother [being] with you;

'the man protesting protested to us' = the man solemnly warned us

=================================.
Quoting the OT:

Hebrews 6:13-14 (KJV)
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=hebrews+6%3A13-14&version=KJV;HCSB;MOUNCE;YLT">https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?s ... MOUNCE;YLT</a><!-- m -->
For when God made promise to Abraham,
because he could swear by no greater,
he sware by himself, Saying,
Surely blessing I will bless thee,
and multiplying I will multiply thee.

'blessing I will bless you' = I will bless you greatly

The MOUNCE chose to not show the doubling.
The doublings "blessing I will bless? multiplying I will multiply" are transliterated in a PDF as
"eulogOn eulogEsO? plEthunOn plEthunO."
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/NTpdf/heb6.pdf">http://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInte ... f/heb6.pdf</a><!-- m -->

=================================.
Genesis 22:17
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=genesis+22%3A17&version=KJV;HCSB;MOUNCE;YLT">https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?s ... MOUNCE;YLT</a><!-- m -->
That in blessing I will bless thee,
and in multiplying I will multiply thy seed
as the stars of the heaven,
and as the sand which is upon the sea shore;
and thy seed shall possess the gate of his enemies;

'in multiplying I will multiply your seed' =
I will multiply your descendants greatly-- I will make your descendants numerous

'your seed will possess the gate of his enemies' =
your descendants will take/possess the cities of enemies

Re: gates, compare
Matthew 16:18
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="https://www.biblegateway.com/quicksearch/?quicksearch=gates&qs_version=KJV&limit=500">https://www.biblegateway.com/quicksearc ... &limit=500</a><!-- m -->
And I say also unto thee, That
thou art Peter,
and upon this rock I will build my church;
and the gates of hell [the original Aramaic: Sheol] shall not prevail against it.

=================================.
Quoting the Semite John the Baptist:

John 3:29 (YLT)
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=john+3%3A29&version=KJV;HCSB;MOUNCE;YLT">https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?s ... MOUNCE;YLT</a><!-- m -->
he who is having the bride is bridegroom,
and the friend of the bridegroom,
who is standing and hearing him,
with joy doth rejoice
because of the voice of the bridegroom;
this, then, my joy hath been fulfilled.

'with joy does rejoice' = rejoices greatly

The MOUNCE chose to not show the doubling.
The doubling is transliterated in a PDF as
"chara chairei"/ to-joy is-rejoicing.
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/NTpdf/joh3.pdf">http://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInte ... f/joh3.pdf</a><!-- m -->

John 3:29 (based on Younan of peshitta.org)
He who has the bride is the bridegroom,
but the friend of the bridegroom,
he who stands and listens to him,
rejoices (with) great joy because of the voice of the bridegroom.
Therefore behold, this my joy is full.

=================================.
Mark 4:41 (YLT)
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=mark+4%3A41&version=MOUNCE;HCSB;GNV;YLT">https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?s ... SB;GNV;YLT</a><!-- m -->
and they feared a great fear, and said one to another,
'Who, then, is this, that even the wind and the sea do obey him?'

'they feared a great fear' = they were extremely afraid

The MOUNCE's transliteration of the Greek translation of the original Aramaic:
"phobeomai megas phobos"
Another transliteration is
"ephobEthEsan phobon megan" in the PDF
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/NTpdf/mar4.pdf">http://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInte ... f/mar4.pdf</a><!-- m -->

Mark 4:41 (Younan)
And they feared (with) a great fear, and were saying to one another,
"Who indeed is this (man), that the winds and the sea obey him?"
Reply
#64
DavidFord Wrote:Semiticism: doubling of a word

Is there a good English commentary on Hebrews?
Reply
#65
Confusion in Greek mss.: a disordered parable, and erroneous names

Matthew 21 New American Bible, Revised Edition (NABRE)
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Matthew+21&version=NABRE">https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?s ... sion=NABRE</a><!-- m -->
Note re: verses 28-32:
There is much confusion in the textual tradition of the parable. Of the three different forms of the text given by important textual witnesses, one has the leaders answer that the son who agreed to go but did not was the one who did the father's will.
?. The choice probably lies only between a reading that puts the son who agrees and then disobeys before the son who at first refuses and then obeys, and the reading followed in the present translation [which reverses that order].

As of A.D. 175, the passage had
the first son saying 'no' and then going,
and the second son saying 'yes' but not going:

Diatesseron 33:35-40
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/anf09.iv.iii.xxxiii.html">http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/anf09.i ... xxiii.html</a><!-- m -->
What think ye?
A man had two sons;
and he went to the first,
and said unto him,
My son, go to-day, and till in the vineyard.
And he answered and said,
I do not wish to:
but finally he repented, and went.
And he went to the other,
and said unto him likewise.
And he answered and said,
Yea, my lord:
and went not.
Which of these two did the will of his father?
They said unto him, The first.

In the original Aramaic,
the first son says 'no' and then goes,
and the second son says 'yes' but doesn't go:

Matthew 21:28-31 (Younan)
But what do you think?
A certain man had two sons.
And he drew near to the first one and said to him,
'My son, go work today in the vineyard.'
But he answered and said,
'I do not desire (to).'
But later he regretted (it) and went.
And he drew near to the other and said likewise to him,
and he answered and said,
'I will, mari [my lord],'
and did not go.
Which of these two did the will of his father?"
They said to him that, "The first one." ?.

///////////////////////////////////
Some Greek manuscripts have erroneous information for the genealogy in Matthew, perhaps arising from differing transliterations of the original Aramaic.

Matthew 1 (NABRE)
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=matthew+1&version=NABRE">https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?s ... sion=NABRE</a><!-- m -->
7 ? Abijah the father of Asaph. ?.
10 ? Manasseh the father of Amos ?.
Notes:
1:7 The successor of Abijah was not Asaph but Asa (see 1 Chr 3:10). Some textual witnesses read the latter name?.
1:10 Amos: some textual witnesses read Amon, who was the actual successor of Manasseh (see 1 Chr 3:14).

?: Asaph or Asa?
?: Amos or Amon?

Tatian didn't include genealogies in his synthesis/ consolidation of the 4 Gospels.

The original Aramaic of the Peshitta has the correct Asa and Amon:

Matthew 1 (based on Younan's interlinear at peshitta.org)
7. ? Abea fathered Asa. ?.
10. ? Manashe fathered Amon. ?.

///////////////////////////////////
The Peshitta's Aramaic has "Gdria" in all three locations of Matthew 8:28, Mark 5:1, and Luke 8:26, while Greek manuscripts have varying transliterations of the original Aramaic: Gadarenes, Gazarenes, Gergesenes, and Gerasenes.

Matthew 8:28 (NAB)
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.vatican.va/archive/ENG0839/_PVH.HTM#ML3W">http://www.vatican.va/archive/ENG0839/_PVH.HTM#ML3W</a><!-- m -->
Gadarenes: this is the reading of Codex Vaticanus, supported by other important textual witnesses. The original reading of Codex Sinaiticus was Gazarenes, later changed to Gergesenes, and a few versions have Gerasenes. Each of these readings points to a different territory connected, respectively, with the cities Gadara, Gergesa, and Gerasa (modern Jerash). There is the same confusion of readings in the parallel texts, ==> Mark 5:1 and ==> Luke 8:26; there the best reading seems to be "Gerasenes," whereas "Gadarenes" is probably the original reading in Matthew. The town of Gadara was about five miles southeast of the Sea of Galilee, and Josephus (Life 9:42) refers to it as possessing territory that lay on that sea.
Reply
#66
Acts 9:36 (based on Younan of peshitta.org)
Now there was a certain talmidtha [female student] in the medintha [city] of Yoppa whose name was Tabitha.[Gazelle] This (one) was rich in good deeds and in the zedqata [alms] that she did.

The Greek translation of the original Aramaic of the book of Acts gives a transliteration of an Aramaic word and then explicitly says it translates that word:

Acts 9:36 New American Bible, Revised Edition (NABRE)
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=acts%209%3A36&version=KJV;HCSB;NABRE;MOUNCE">https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?s ... BRE;MOUNCE</a><!-- m -->
Now in Joppa there was a disciple named Tabitha (which translated means Dorcas).[a] She was completely occupied with good deeds and almsgiving.
a: Tabitha (Dorcas), respectively the Aramaic and Greek words for ?gazelle,??.
Reply
#67
3 glosses in Greek translations

Mark 5:41-42 (based on Younan of peshitta.org)
And he took the hand of the girl and said to her,
"Talitha, qomy!" [young girl, arise]
42. And at once the girl arose?.

The Greek translation of the original Aramaic gives a transliteration of an Aramaic phrase and then explicitly says it translates that phrase:

Mark 5:41 (HCSB)
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=mark%205%3A41&version=KJV;HCSB;NABRE;MOUNCE">https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?s ... BRE;MOUNCE</a><!-- m -->
Then He took the child by the hand and said to her,
"Talitha koum!"
(which is translated, "Little girl, I say to you, get up!").

/////////////////////////////////////
Mark 7:11-12 (Younan)
11. But you say,
'If a man should say to his father or to his mother,
'What you (would) have gained from me is qorbani [my offering/gift],'
12. then you do not allow him to?.

The Greek translation of the original Aramaic gives a transliteration of an Aramaic word and then gives that word's translation:

Mark 7:11 (NABRE)
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=mark+7%3A11&version=KJV;HCSB;NABRE;MOUNCE">https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?s ... BRE;MOUNCE</a><!-- m -->
Yet you say,
'If a person says to father or mother,
"Any support you might have had from me is qorban"'
(meaning, dedicated to God),

/////////////////////////////////////
John 4:25 (Younan)
The woman said to him that, "I know that the Meshikha [Messiah i.e. Annointed One] is coming, and when he comes, he will teach us everything."

The Greek translation of the original Aramaic gives a transliteration of an Aramaic word and then gives that word's translation:

John 4:25 (HCSB)
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=john+4%3A25&version=KJV;HCSB;NABRE;MOUNCE">https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?s ... BRE;MOUNCE</a><!-- m -->
The woman said to Him, "I know that Messiah is coming" (who is called Christ). "When He comes, He will explain everything to us."
Reply
#68
Round 2 of the Semiticism of doubling a word

In dialogue:

Matthew 21 (based on Younan)
40. Therefore, when the lord of the vineyard comes,
what should he do to those laborers?"
41. They were saying to him,
"He will d?bish-bish [of?evil-evil, or: of?bad-bad, i.e. savagely] destroy them?.

The Greek translator of the original Aramaic left in the doubled adjectives to get ?kakous kakOs apolesei autous,? which could be rendered as ?EVIL [-ones] EVILly he-SHALL-BE-destroyING them.? See the PDF at
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/NTpdf/mat21.pdf">http://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInte ... /mat21.pdf</a><!-- m -->

The HCSB came up with ?completely destroy those terrible men.? See
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=matthew+21%3A41&version=KJV;HCSB;NABRE;MOUNCE">https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?s ... BRE;MOUNCE</a><!-- m -->

Matthew Black states that ?repetition of an adjective or an adverb to express the elative is idiomatic Hebrew and Aramaic,? but then mentions two instances where such doubling exists in Greek writings. He (erroneously) opines that the Matthew 21:41 passage was originally in Greek and had doubling in Greek. See
Black, Matthew. _An Aramaic Approach to the Gospels and Acts_, 3rd edition (1967, 1998), 359pp., 118.

///////////////////////////////////
The original Aramaic for Mark 6:39-40 has 4 doublings in narration.

Mark 6 (based on Younan)
39. And he commanded them to seat everyone smkin-smkin [by groups] upon the grass.
40. And they sat smkin-smkin [by groups] of maa-maa [hundreds] and of khmshin-khmshin [fifties].

The Greek translator of Mark left in 2 of the 4 doublings:

Mark 6 (KJV?)
39. And he commanded them to make all sit down sumposia-sumposia [by companies] upon the green grass.
40. And they sat down prasiai-prasiai [in ranks], by hundreds, and by fifties.
See the PDF
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/NTpdf/mar6.pdf">http://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInte ... f/mar6.pdf</a><!-- m -->
Reply
#69
somewhat-strange situation in Greek mss. vs. clarity in Aramaic Peshitta: Matthew 25:44 & 1 Corinthians 12:3

Greek mss. have Jesus talking about people calling him "Kurios" i.e. Lord/Master shortly before they go off to punishment,
and at the same time have Paul saying that it's impossible to say "Jesus is Kurios" except by the Holy Spirit:

Matthew 25:44-46 (KJV)
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Matthew%2025%3A44-46&version=KJV;HCSB;NABRE;MOUNCE">https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?s ... BRE;MOUNCE</a><!-- m -->
44 Then shall they also answer him, saying,
Lord ["Kurios" in Greek mss.], when saw we thee an hungred, or athirst, or a stranger, or naked, or sick, or in prison,
and did not minister unto thee?
45 Then shall he answer them, saying,
Verily I say unto you,
Inasmuch as ye did it not to one of the least of these,
ye did it not to me.
46 And these shall go away into everlasting punishment:
but the righteous into life eternal.

1 Corinthians 12:3 (HCSB)
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1+cor+12%3A3&version=KJV;HCSB;NABRE;MOUNCE">https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?s ... BRE;MOUNCE</a><!-- m -->
Therefore I am informing you that
no one speaking by the Spirit of God says, "Jesus is cursed,"
and no one can say, "Jesus is Lord [Kurios]," except by the Holy Spirit.

The original Aramaic of the Peshitta lacks that somewhat-strange situation, since it has "Maran" (our Lord/Master) in Mt 25:44, and the very different "Mar-Ya" (almost always: Master YHWH) in 1 Cor 12:

Matthew 25 (based on Younan)
44. Even then they will answer and say,
'Maran [our Lord/Master], when did we see you hungry or thirsty or a stranger or naked or sick or in prison,
and (did) not minister to you?'
45. Then he will answer and say to them,
'Amain I say to you,
inasmuch as you did not (do) to one of these little ones,
you also did not do to me.'
46. And these will depart to everlasting torment,
but the zadiqa [righteous] to everlasting life."

1 Corinthians 12:3 (based on Murdock from the Peshitta Tool at <!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.dukhrana.com">http://www.dukhrana.com</a><!-- m -->, and looking at Khabouris)
I therefore inform you, that
there is no man, that speaks by the Rukha of Allaha, who says that "Yeshua is accursed":
neither can a man say that "Yeshua is of Mar-Ya" [Master YHWH], except by the Rukha d'Qudsha [Spirit of Holiness].
Reply
#70
Very good observation, David.

Can you tell me which places that MarYa isn't speaking of Master-YHWH?

Thanks,
Chuck
Reply
#71
Mar-Ya doesn't mean "Master YHWH" in at-least these locations:
1 Peter 5:3, 1 Tim 6:2, Col 4:1, Eph 6:9, Rom 16:6
Reply
#72
a) Mark 10:46-52: gloss
b) Mt 6:11 and Lk 11:3: made-up word

Gloss added, botched transliteration and translation: Mark 10:46-52

Mark 10:46-52 (HCSB)
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=mark+10%3A46-52&version=KJV;HCSB;NABRE;MOUNCE">https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?s ... BRE;MOUNCE</a><!-- m -->
46 They came to Jericho. And as He was leaving Jericho with His disciples and a large crowd, Bartimaeus (the son of Timaeus), a blind beggar, was sitting by the road. 47 When he heard that it was Jesus the Nazarene, he began to cry out, "Son of David, Jesus, have mercy on me!" 48 Many people told him to keep quiet, but he was crying out all the more, "Have mercy on me, Son of David!"
49 Jesus stopped and said, "Call him."
So they called the blind man and said to him, "Have courage! Get up; He's calling for you." 50 He threw off his coat, jumped up, and came to Jesus.
51 Then Jesus answered him, "What do you want Me to do for you?"
"Rabbouni,"[a: Hb for _my teacher_] the blind man told Him, "I want to see!"
52 "Go your way," Jesus told him. "Your faith has healed you." Immediately he could see and began to follow Him on the road.

There's a gloss in Greek mss. in v. 46 with "Bartimaeus (the son of Timaeus)." "Bar-" is Aramaic for "son," and "bar-Timaeus" means "son of Timaeus." Greek mss. also left out a "Timi," since the original Aramaic reads "Timi bar-Timi [Timi son of Timi i.e. Timi, Jr.]."

There's a botched transliteration in v. 51 with "Rabbouni." The original Aramaic is here better transliterated as "Rabbi-- there's no "n." Perhaps the Greek translator or Greek manuscript copyist was mistakenly thinking of John 20:16, where there is again the transliteration "Rabbouni" in Greek manuscripts (though even in John 20:16, the original Aramaic there is better transliterated "Rabbuli"-- with an "l" instead of an "n").

Greek mss. incorrectly have Jesus' first words to the beggar's request for healing be a brusque, "Go your way."
In contrast, the original Aramaic has Jesus' first words to the man's request be the kinder, "See."

There's a botched translation in verses 51-52, by having Jesus tell the beggar,
"Go your way," after which the healed man "began to follow Him on the road."
In contrast, the original Aramaic much more sensibly has Jesus telling the man,
"See," after which "he saw, and went off down the road."

Translating from the original Aramaic:

Mark 10:46-52 (based on Younan)
46. And they came to Yerikho. And when Yeshua and his talmida [students] and a great crowd went out from Yerikho, a blind man, Timi bar-Timi [Timi son of Timi i.e. Timi, Jr.], was sitting on the side of the road and begging. 47. And he heard that it was Yeshua the Nasraya, and he began to cry out and to say, "Bareh-d'Dawid [of Dawid his son, i.e. Son of David], have mercy on me!" 48. Many were reproving him to be silent, but he was crying out all the more and saying, "Bareh-d'Dawid, have mercy on me!" 49. And Yeshua stopped and commanded that they call him. And they called the blind man and said to him, "Have courage! Arise, he calls you." 50. And the blind man threw off his clothes, arose, and came toward Yeshua. 51. Yeshua said to him,
"What is it (that) you desire me to do for you?"
And the blind man said to him, "Rabbi, that I may see!" 52. And Yeshua said to him,
"See.
Your faith has made you whole."
And immediately he saw, and went off down the road.

=====================================
Made-up word: Mt 6:11 and Lk 11:3

Greek mss. have a made-up word in Mt 6:11 and Lk 11:3, "epiousion," often guessed to mean "daily":

Matthew 6:11 (NABRE)
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Matthew+6%3A11&version=KJV;HCSB;NABRE;MOUNCE">https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?s ... BRE;MOUNCE</a><!-- m -->
[a]Give us today our daily bread;
a: Give us today our daily bread: the rare Greek word _epiousios_, here daily, occurs in the New Testament only here and in Lk 11:3. A single occurrence of the word outside of these texts and of literature dependent on them has been claimed, but the claim is highly doubtful. The word may mean daily or "future" (other meanings have also been proposed).

<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="https://www.teknia.com/greek-dictionary/epiousios">https://www.teknia.com/greek-dictionary/epiousios</a><!-- m -->
This word occurs nowhere else in Greek literature except in the context of the Lord's prayer. Guesses include, necessary for today, necessary for tomorrow, daily, sufficient, Mt. 6:11; Lk. 11:3

In contrast, the original Aramaic of the Peshitta for Mt 6:11 and Lk 11:3 consists of words also found elsewhere in the Peshitta.

Incidentally, Mt 6:11 uses "yomna"-- this day, daily-- while Lk 11:3 instead uses "klium"-- every day, daily. Also, to mean "as," Mt 6:10 uses "aikna" while Lk 11:2 uses "aik." Hence, in at least 2 places, the Luke version means the same, but has less-perfect rhyming compared with the Matthew version. In my opinion, Yeshua-- God incarnate-- gave a model prayer with superb rhyming recorded in Mt 6. The Lk 11 rendition means the same, but has less rhyming and fewer of Yeshua's original words, besides lacking "for of yours is the Kingdom, and the power, and the glory, l'ailm-ailmin [to age-ages; or: to world-worlds]."
Reply
#73
DavidFord Wrote:Mar-Ya doesn't mean "Master YHWH" in at-least these locations:
1 Peter 5:3, 1 Tim 6:2, Col 4:1, Eph 6:9, Rom 16:6

Hi David

I hope you know that MarYa is not present in any of those verses, right?

"maraye" ("masters", plural of "mar", "lord") happens to, by accident of Grammar, have the same consonants as "MarYa" - but it is a completely different word with different vowels. If you consult a pointed text with vowels, you will see the difference in pronunciation.

The word MarYa (not "maraye"), invariably and at all times, refers strictly to YHWH.

+Shamasha
Reply
#74
I know now, Paul-- thanks for your reply.
Vowel pointing was a later innovation.  Hopefully this works:
 
Because of grammar and context, it is known that these instances of the letters "mrya" aren't "Master YHWH," but rather something else:
 
Ephesians 6:9 (Lamsa)
Also, masters [mrya], do the same things for your servants,
forgiving their faults,
because you also have your own Master [mrkun:  your Master] in heaven;
and there is no respect of persons with him.
 
Colossians 4:1 (Etheridge)
Masters [mrya], do equity and justice to your servants,
knowing that you also have a Master [mra] in heaven.
 
1 Timothy 6:2 (Etheridge)
But let not those who have believing masters [mrya] slight them,
because they are their brethren;
but serve them the more,
because they are believers,
and beloved who are refreshed by their ministry.
These things teach and require of them.
 
1 Peter 5:3 (Lamsa)
Live not as overlords [mrya] over the flock,
but as good examples to them.
 
Romans 16:6 (Etheridge)
Ask the peace of Maria [shalu b'shlma d'mrya],
who hath laboured much with you.
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#75
odd Greek translation resolved by original Aramaic:  Matthew 24:51

Matthew 24:51 (HCSB)
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?se...OUNCE;DLNT
He will cut him to pieces[a:  Lit _him in two_]
and assign him a place with the hypocrites.
In that place there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth.

The Greek translation doesn't sound right.  Is a dismembered person-- presumably a dead corpse or about to be a dead corpse-- really supposed to become company with hypocrites that are weeping and gnashing their teeth?  

Study of the original Aramaic provides for a more-reasonable translation:

Lewis, Agnes Smith.  1913.  _Light on the Four Gospels from the Sinai Palimpsest_ (London:  Williams & Norgate), 226pp.  
https://archive.org/details/cu31924091301089
On 109-110, with her bracket:
Dr Arnold Meyer has pointed out that the verb used in Luke xii. 46 and in Matt. xxiv. 51 in all the Syriac versions, _palleg_, has the primary meaning of "cut in pieces," and the secondary one of "appoint to some one his portion."^1[1:  Cf. _Jesv Muttersprache_, p. 115.  Dr Meyer attributes these meanings to the _Afel_ form of the verb.  But they belong also to the form _Pael_.]  If we suppose that our Lord used it in the primary sense, the difficulty as to how the man survived so trying a process becomes insoluble.  But if we take it in the secondary one, we must assume that the Evangelist, whilst investigating about all these things, and writing them down carefully in Greek for the benefit of Theophilus, misunderstood a Syriac idiom by taking it too literally.  The translation would then be:  "_and shall allot his portion, and shall place him [or it] with the unfaithful_," etc.
This parable, as Dr Rendel Harris has pointed out, is possibly taken from the story of Achikar, which belongs to the Pseudepigraphy of the Old Testament, and just missed getting into the canonical Apocrypha.  Achikar had a wicked and ungrateful nephew named Nadan, who behaved in precisely the same way as this bad servant did, and who met with a similar fate.

Compare:

Pashka, Joseph.  2003.  _The Aramaic Gospels and Acts:  Text and Translation_ (USA:  Xulon Press), 300pp.  On 53, Mt 24:51:
and will separate from him his share to give among the hypocrites;
there will be wailing and grinding of teeth.
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