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Mark 15:34

I tried to do a search but was unsuccessful. In the Aramaic of Mark 15:34, why is there a translation or interpretation of Messiah's words? If the Aramaic is the original, shouldn't there have been no need to interpret them like we read in Matthew?

Because Marc translates the Galilean dialect to a more common dialect.

He writes something like this: Yl, Yl, lemana, shebaqtani

and translates it to:
Alahi, Alahi, lemana, shebaqtani.

As you can understand from Matthew, the people around the cross also did not understand Eli, Eli! THey thought it was Eliyah. This must be because the Jews from Yihud (Judea) said 'alaha' not 'El' when they referred to God.
Great, I'll have to check that out for myself when I get home today. I was thinking it may have been something like that. Although, that also leads me to another question I asked in the general forum about the dialects between what was spoken in the first century and the Syriac of the Peshitta. Gotta do some homework on that one.

Thank you for the speedy reply!


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