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In Peshitta
Matth. 19:28 "...when the Son of man shall sit upon the throne of his glory, you also shall sit upon twelve seats...".
In Greek text it says 'throne' in both cases.
Aramaic 'tronos' means throne and 'kurs'ya'' means both throne and seat.
If the Greek original would be 'throne' in both cases, the Aramaic translator would translate
it either 'throne' or 'seat' since Zorba has one word for both cases.
Now it looks like Zorba translated it into one word.
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Matt 23:22 has "k'uwrsyeh"=throne, rather than the Greek word that shows up in Matt 19:28 & 25:31
"And whosoever sweareth by heaven, sweareth by the throne of Alaha, and by Him who sitteth thereon."
I guess my question would be...if Matthew wrote in Aramaic, and the Peshitta text is from that source and not a Greek source, why does it have the Greek word for "throne" in two places, then the Aramaic word for "throne" in two places? Would Matthew have done this? And if so, what would be a reason?
Shlama,
Chuck
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Hi Chuck.
In Aramaic kurseya literally means chair. As in generic chair. Tronos is a greek loan word in Aramaic for throne.
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Is there no Aramaic word for Throne then? Must a Greek word be borrowed for a lack of it in Aramaic?
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I think this is very significant.
Because, if you look at all the places in the NT where it speaks of the "Throne" of God, in Matthew and the other NT books, even Revelation, which is believed to come from a Greek source, the word is Kursya or a variation of it, not Tronos as the Greek versions have.
It seems to me, that Matthew actually used the word "Tronos" in these two places for some reason, rather than "Kursya", as he does in the other places in his Gospel, and Peshitta being a copy of the Aramaic Gospel of Matthew and not a translation of it, does not translate the word "Tronos" to "Kursya".
IF Peshitta were a translation of a Greek form of the Gospel of Matthew, then these two places with "Tronos", would have been translated as "Kursya", as is seen, for instance in Revelation 4:4.
Shlama,
Chuck
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I think that, and this may sound odd, the presence of a Greek loan word in the Aramaic scriptures actually supports Aramaic primacy.
I've always said that if the Peshitta was 100% pure Aramaic, it could not be the product of the milieu of 1st-century Palestine. It would most certainly have been a translation.