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Lukan Authorship of Hebrews (Wallace quote)
#1
One of the books I'm reading right now is "Lukan Authorship of Hebrews" by David Allen. On page 115 in the section on stylistic similarities he has a quote from Clement of Alexandria via Eusebius: ". . . the Epistle of the Hebrews is the work of Paul . . . It was written to the Hebrews in the Hebrew language, but . . . Luke translated it carefully and published it for the Greeks, and hence the same style of expression is found in this epistle and in the Acts" ("Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics, 1996, Wallace).

Doug
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#2
Doug in CO Wrote:One of the books I'm reading right now is "Lukan Authorship of Hebrews" by David Allen. On page 115 in the section on stylistic similarities he has a quote from Clement of Alexandria via Eusebius: ". . . the Epistle of the Hebrews is the work of Paul . . . It was written to the Hebrews in the Hebrew language, but . . . Luke translated it carefully and published it for the Greeks, and hence the same style of expression is found in this epistle and in the Acts" ("Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics, 1996, Wallace).

Doug

Shlama Akhi Doug:
This may help you. The language of the Hebrews referred to by Clement of Alexandria via Eusebius was the Aramic/Syriac language written in K'tav Ashuri. K'tav Ashuri (lit.- writing of the Assyrians) is the defacto glyph Alep-Bet of First Century BC. Hebrew and Aramaic. The First Century AD saw the first inscriptions in Estrangelo, but these were not used by the Hebrews at that time. This is the same text used to write the Dead Sea Scrolls both in Hebrew as well as Aramaic. The New Testament was originally written in these glyphs as well.

Moving on I want to establish a note. English and French share a few. Hebrew and Aramaic share many of the same roots and Lexemes. (I know that French is one of five romantic languages derived primarily from Latin). English a "bastard" language has Greek for its roots. English is derived from vulger German, French, Slavic, Indian, Celtic, etc.) Latin comes from the old Italic. They created the Uncial A of Alpha and O of Omega used in Greek. These texts found extant in Sinaiticus are Uncial. The Uncial began with a quest for glyphs that would lend well to bustophedrin/the plow/back and forth. Classical Greek settled on left to right.

Now, Moses seems to have picked up the paleo-hebrew writing form in the years that he was banished from the Kingdom of Egypt around 1250BC. He was now in the area of Midean where 200years earlier there was a writing system in use using dirivative-glyph. The language of the land of Midean was to my understanding much like Canaanite and Moabite. Moses learned this written language from Jethro's people and news from Canaan, where Abraham, Isaac and Jacob had originally set stake and heap of witness. So Moses shrugged off the Egyptian Picture Glyphs and chose the new writing system and language. It is with this language, over a forty year period, by which he received the divine Torah from YHVH Elohim which was to become the LAW of the LAND for the people of Israel.

The Assyrian, Aramaic speaking scholars adopted the pheonician Alap-Bet in the 7th Century. The Greeks woke up, smelled the coffee and looked at their old mistress Linear B and cried. Then they said a short and goodbye (aaaaaah-oh..oh..oh) and took another mistress. This was to become the written classic Greek of Origin and Aristotle.

Why Alpha-Omega instead of Alef-Bet? Simple, the Greeks chose from the system that was written for Consonants, to emphasize the vowel sound, ahh-oh so as to completely ignore the roots that were already in use using the Consonental System, thus rejecting the Semitic advances. In fact A-T, means "sign". As Yeshua said, "not one yud/consonant/vowel or sereta/stroke" shall pass from TORAH shall ALL is fulfilled"(Matthew 5:17-20...), and that means the Second Coming of Meshikha Yeshua. BTW, it is for this reason (Esauism) that Greek sold the birthright to write the original New Testament. Greek has always followed its pagan/demonic gods that reflect like a miror their own humanity. This is why they mastered the Olympics. It has a lot to do with the human outer form, rather the hidden man inside a destructive, death-appointed body, waiting to emerge to the beauty of YHVH, as expressed in Yeshua Meshikha.

Clement's Greek did not share any roots or lexemes with any Semitic language, as I have put forth. Greek, in the 7th Century B.C. borrowed from the Phoenician Alef-Bet Glyph, reordered some phonetic glyphs and began to write backwards, choosing the "reverse plow/ bostephedron". Greek finally shrugged off the Linear B baggage, for a real phonetic Alpha-Omega. (Hebrew and Aramaic are derived from Akkadian (cursive script). All the Greeks neded was a way of recording their articulation/devotion of their false-deities.

The Pheonician glyphs were a great step forward from cursive Akkadian and pictograph (Egyptian). The Canaanite, Moabite, Hebrew and Aramaic all use the same Glyph in the classic consonental writing and spoken phonetic Aleph-Bet expressing the spoken root system. Moreover, this system recorded the tri-letter prime roots in the writing system. This was a great advance to civilization and it's roots were first expressed in Akkadian and were used in the same spoken language which spawned written Aramaic and Hebrew. Remember that Abram's mother tongue was Aramaic before the writing system that could record it, hence faithful Abraham. Jacob was bi-lingual. His mother tongue was Canaanite and his parent's language of Aramaic was his secondary language. It would be fair to say that the Hebrew language became personal to the Hebrews through Moses our teacher and divine Scribe, the receiver and teacher of the Torah.

There is lots for thought here Akhi Doug and you asked the $64,000 dollar question. ring the bell! <!-- s:onfire: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/onfire.gif" alt=":onfire:" title="On Fire" /><!-- s:onfire: -->

That's a spicy meat-a-ball.

Shlama,
Stephen
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