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Mark 14:12 first or before?
#1
hi all,

We know that Seder, would be eaten on the start of the 15th Nisan, in the evening.
On 14 (which ends at 18:00 , it was the day of preparation.

So, it is highly unlikely, that the disciples would be looking for the guest room, at 14 which would make them rather hasty and uncareful since they would both prepare and eat the seder at the same day.

I think it should have been on 13 Nisan, they went to look for the guest room.

Is it possible to translate it thus:

Before the first day of unleavened bread...
instead of
"On the day of unleavend bread" (which would mean that it already should have been the 14/15th!)

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#2
Shlama,

I would translate Mark 14:12 as either "the first day" or "in the first day", thus: "In the first day of the Feast of Unleavened Bread, in which the Jews sacrificed the Passover lamb, his disciples asked him, Where is it you wish us to go that we make the preparations to eat the Passover?"

The word
[font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]0ymdq[/font]
means "first", Paul's Interlinear says
[font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]0ymdq 0mwybw[/font]
which literally means "and in first day" {I can't seem to get the fonts to appear properly}

Murdock and Etheridge say "on the first day of unleavened cakes"

I believe it would be stretching the Aramaic beyond it's original intention should we use the word "before" in this verse. The Hebrew translation of the Aramaic I have before me agrees with Paul's Interlinear where it says "and in day the first" (and in the first day)

(Edit: Still can't get the fonts to work properly. <!-- s:mad: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/mad.gif" alt=":mad:" title="Mad" /><!-- s:mad: --> )
Ya'aqub Younan-Levine
Aramaica.org
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#3
You need to block off the aramaic words and change their size from "Normal" to "Large" or "Huge". You can leave the rest of the text at "Normal" size.

Otto
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#4
yaaqubyl Wrote:Shlama,

I would translate Mark 14:12 as either "the first day" or "in the first day", thus: "In the first day of the Feast of Unleavened Bread, in which the Jews sacrificed the Passover lamb, his disciples asked him, Where is it you wish us to go that we make the preparations to eat the Passover?"

The word "[font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]0ymdq[/font]" means "first", Paul's Interlinear says "[font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]0ymdq 0mwybw[/font]" which literally means "and in first day" {I can't seem to get the fonts to appear properly}

Murdock and Etheridge say "on the first day of unleavened cakes"

I believe it would be stretching the Aramaic beyond it's original intention should we use the word "before" in this verse. The Hebrew translation of the Aramaic I have before me agrees with Paul's Interlinear where it says "and in day the first" (and in the first day)

Thank you for your comment, but you understand that this is contradictional with John?

As some one here commented already, I try to think 'outside the box' <!-- sSmile --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="Smile" title="Smile" /><!-- sSmile -->

Why would Mark make such a uncareful remark? The first day of unleavened bread, would be the day of the slaughter of the lamb. However, Jesus was killed on the 14th.
So, this would make the eating of the last supper, happen on the same day as the renting of the room.


So, if the lexicon allows 'before' I cannot understand why Paul or another did not choose 'before' for the sake of historical correctness and on par with John.
Or is the translation 'before' just a simple: NO NO?

<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.dukhrana.com/lexicon/PayneSmith/page.php?p=490">http://www.dukhrana.com/lexicon/PayneSm ... .php?p=490</a><!-- m -->
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#5
I can't speak for the contradiction, because I haven't looked at it yet. I do concur however, that the word is of the nature of "first", and not "before".

wab:yaw:mo` qad:mo:no`

My own preference for the adjective (qad:mo:no`) is "the-foremost", based upon its many uses in the NT.

"and-in-the-day the-foremost" ... of unleavened bread

Or using better English syntax, it would be "And on the foremost day of unleavened bread".
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