Thread Rating:
  • 0 Vote(s) - 0 Average
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
Question about Aramaic word, mulkana
#1
Shlama,

Can anyone tell me if the word "mulkana" (Lexicon: 11913) can be translated as "declaration" and still carry the same meaning as "promise" as in Galatians 3:18?

"If the inheritance is by means of the Law, then it is no longer by means of the declaration [the declared thing, the promised thing], but God granted it to Abraham by means of the declaration."

Does this make sense?
Reply
#2
Shlama Akhi Yaakub,

Well, mulkana can be mean "promise" or "declaration", but it can't be translated "declaration" and still mean "promise".
A promise is a declaration, but a declaration is not necessarily a promise. It could be simply a statement of fact.

What God gave to Abraham was more than a declaration of fact; it was a promise.

Make sense?


Dave Bauscher
Reply
#3
"Mulkana" also can mean "property/goods", but only if in the plural ("mul-kan-eh")
Reply
#4
Shlama,

gbausc Wrote:Make sense?

Dave, thanks, yes this makes sense.

Paul Younan Wrote:"Mulkana" also can mean "property/goods", but only if in the plural ("mul-kan-eh")

Paul, thank you for this additional note.
Reply
#5
yaaqub Wrote:Paul, thank you for this additional note.

Akhi Yaaqub,

A nice play on words with "Yartutha" ("inheritance") and the alternate meaning of "Mulkaneh" ("property"), no ? <!-- sSmile --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="Smile" title="Smile" /><!-- sSmile -->
Reply


Forum Jump:


Users browsing this thread: 1 Guest(s)