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Marya Yeshua - YHWH YHWH Saves???
#46
I don't say this in mean spirit, but Jesus Christ is God in the flesh and the only begotten of YHWH. The Gospels and the Tanakh clearly teach a virgin birth. Is there any need to cite scripture for something so emphatically stated in the Bible?
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#47
Having read through the posts of this thread, I tend to lean toward what is captured throughout the reading of the TARGUMIYM about the MEMRA of YHWH, which is of course HIS WORD. In many instances they point to the MEMRA speaking in places where it is thought to be YHWH, (ie speaking to MOShE from the burning bush)...

ZS
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#48
Yes Zadiq. And who is The MEMRA, who was speaking to Moses and revealing the will of The Father to all the Prophets?
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#49
Thirdwoe Wrote:Yes Zadiq. And who is The MEMRA, who was speaking to Moses and revealing the will of The Father to all the Prophets?

According to the TARGUMIYM, the MEMRA is YAHShUAH, (or Y'ShUA if you choose). Most don't understand that YAHShUAH has been around since the beginning of YAH's creation per GILYAHNA 3:14 and MIShLEY 8:22-31.

ShALOWM
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#50
Indeed...I've tried to explain how that is, over the years. The Aramaic text brings this fact out real clear, for those who choose to accept it.

Shlama,
Chuck
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#51
Revelation is product of Greeks, not CoE, therefore it is suspicious as their corrupted manuscripts.
But this one is very clear:
1Corinthians 1:30 - But you also belong to God through Jesus Christ who, from God, is wisdom and righteousness and sanctification, and salvation to all of us.
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#52
IPOstapyuk Wrote:Revelation is product of Greeks, not CoE, therefore it is suspicious as their corrupted manuscripts.
But this one is very clear:
1Corinthians 1:30 - But you also belong to God through Jesus Christ who, from God, is wisdom and righteousness and sanctification, and salvation to all of us.

It is quite normal that when someone disagrees with a certain text they find it to be "corrupted"... That is a normal response and why certain texts were left out anyway...

ShALOWM...
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#53
Does not the Peshitta confess Jesus to be MarYa[h] though? This simply means "Master Yah". This is hard to dispute, as it is only applied to YHWH and Jesus and replaces the Hebrew Tetragrammaton in the Peshitta Tanakh in every place in which it appears.
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#54
Hence this thread Scorpion, because if MARYA(h) as you put it is YHWH, then there is no need for the second YHWH as in MARYA YHWH.

zs
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#55
John 1:1, says it all... <!-- sSmile --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="Smile" title="Smile" /><!-- sSmile -->
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#56
I'm not quite sure where you are confused Zadiq. In the Tanakh, where YHVH appears in the hebrew original, the peshitta translates it into aramaic as MRYA. The "title" Maryah doesn't precede the name of the Lord, but replaces it. (The word itself is kind of a contraction, incorporating both a title and a name, hence the common translations such as "Lord Yah," "Lord YHVH," "Master Yah," or "Master YHVH.")

Likewise, when the Peshitta NT uses the word MRYA it is either in place of YHVH (in a direct quote from the Tanakh), or a clear reference to God the Father. Except for the times when it is used to refer to Yeshua, as in "No man can say 'Yeshua is Mar-Yah' except by the Holy Spirit."

That the "divine" title/name is applied to Yeshua is very strong evidence that Yeshua is the "One God" of Deuteronomy 6:4.

But are you saying there is somewhere in the text of Peshitta where you see the phrase "MRYA YHWH"? That would be confusing if it were the case....

Shlama,
Brian
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#57
bknight Wrote:... are you saying there is somewhere in the text of Peshitta where you see the phrase "MRYA YHWH"? That would be confusing if it were the case....

Shlama,
Brian

Brian the start of this thread was about the Hebrew meanings of MarYah Yehoshuah . The author of this thread believed that this phrse would mean "Adon YHWH YH(WH) will save". So too answer your question "no there is no place in the ReNewed Covenant that actually has MarYah YHWH in it". The problem with such a conjecture to start with is that the Anointed One's Name does not by any means physically have any form of The Divine Name within It.

For an explanation of how the Hebrew rules of Grammar wholly sustain The Anointed One's Name see: <!-- l --><a class="postlink-local" href="http://www.peshitta.org/forum/viewtopic.php?f=17&t=1242&p=20836#p20836">viewtopic.php?f=17&t=1242&p=20836#p20836</a><!-- l -->
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#58
Well, it isn't intended to be read as "MarYa YahGivesLife", it is meant to be read as "MarYa Eshu'" or "MarYa Yeshua". I'm sure when Aramaic speakers say "MarYa Eshu'", they don't think of it in terms of definition, similar to English speakers (even if they know the definitions of their names) think of names as separate from normal words. Calling Jesus by His name does not automatically show deity (Jesus/Yeshua/Eshu'=YHWH Salvation) just like "Eliyahu/Eliya" ("YHWH is my God") and "Yeshayahu/Eshaiya" ("YHWH Is Savior") do not. "MarYa", however, used in conjunction with the name of Jesus Christ does denote His deity.
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#59
Quote:the Anointed One's Name does not by any means physically have any form of The Divine Name within It.

Yeho shuah

What's up with that Y H ??? What do those letters stand for then, Will?

And what about the Y "Yhod" in the Aramaic name form Yeshu' ?

Shlama,
Chuck
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#60
Quote:"...No man can say 'Yeshua is MarYa, except by The Holy Spirit." 1st Corinthians 12:3b


I, Chuck, say: Yeshua is MarYa! <!-- sSmile --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="Smile" title="Smile" /><!-- sSmile -->
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