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Asleep ot Dead?
#1
December 10, 2004

Lamsa's translation of 1 Thessalonians 4:13 from the Peshitta has the phrase:

"...you should not grieve over those who are dead, as those who have no hope."

That makes perfect sence to me. However, Mudock's Peshitta translation reads:

"...ye should not mourn over them who have fallen asleep, like other people who have no hope."

The accepted Greek text uses κοιμωμένων (ones sleeping).

Comments on the Aramaic text would be appreciated.

Thanks,

Otto
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#2
Shlama Akhi Otto,

"Fell asleep" is an Aramaic idiom for 'death.' This can be seen in the following verses....

Act 7:60 And he kneeled down, and cried with a loud voice, Lord, lay not this sin to their charge. And when he had said this, he fell asleep.

Act 13:36 For David, after he had in his own generation served the counsel of God, fell asleep, and was laid unto his fathers, and saw corruption:

1Co 15:6 then he appeared to above five hundred brethren at once, of whom the greater part remain until now, but some are fallen asleep;

1Co 15:18 Then they also that are fallen asleep in Christ have perished.

1Co 15:20 But now hath Christ been raised from the dead, the firstfruits of them that are asleep.

The next two verses after the one you mentioned (1st Thes. 4:13) contain this idiom as well...

1Th 4:14 For if we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so them also that are fallen asleep in Jesus will God bring with him.
1Th 4:15 For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we that are alive, that are left unto the coming of the Lord, shall in no wise precede them that are fallen asleep.

2Pe 3:4 and saying, Where is the promise of his coming? for, from the day that the fathers fell asleep, all things continue as they were from the beginning of the creation.

Shlama w'Burkate, Larry Kelsey
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#3
December 13, 2004

Thanks for the comments.

If "fallen asleep" is an Aramaic idiom for "died" and "asleep" means "dead", why do the following verses have both words?

1Co 15:20 But now hath Christ been raised from the dead, the firstfruits of them that are asleep.

1Th 4:14 For if we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so them also that are fallen asleep in Jesus will God bring with him.

Can the two terms be equivalent or is there a deeper meaning suggested about the nature of death?

Otto
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