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Answer to Galalian - Printable Version

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Answer to Galalian - ograabe - 05-27-2014

Anyone who studies the "Nestle-Aland Greek-English New Testament" will quickly realize that there really is no basis for establishing the New Testament as an original Greek document. WHAT A MESS!

According to Greek scholars Kurt Aland and Barbara Aland (The Text of the New Testament, 2nd Edition, William B. Eerdmans Publishing Company, Grand Rapids, MI, 1987), more than one-third of the verses in the Greek Texts are significantly uncertain with at least two or more major words being different among various Greek versions. In many cases whole verses or important parts of verses are missing in the Greek texts. This does not include the many important differences that depend on single words. If the New testament was written in Greek why are there thousands of variations?

In sharp contrast the text of the Peshitta New Testament is consistent throughout the ages. The content of the Peshitta has not been changed throughout the centuries. The Peshitta text is essentially the same today as in all the earliest surviving manuscripts: Codex Ambrosianus (5th Century) Ambrosian Library, Milan Italy; the Mortimer and McCawley Manuscript (6th Century); and the famous Khabouris Manuscript (10th Century). The British and Foreign Bible Society (1905 & 1920) published the full text of Peshitta 22 books along with the so-called Western 5 additional books.

There is no ancient Greek text that exactly matches the ancient Peshitta from which it could have been translated. On the other hand, the Greek New Testament texts are clearly based on the Aramaic Peshitta text since the wide variety of the Greek versions (Byzantine, Western, Caesarean, Alexandrian) contain varied content, very many alternative translations of Aramaic words, some missing words or whole phrases, and obvious misunderstandings of Aramaic words.

There are very many obvious errors caused by faulty translations from Aramaic to Greek. For example, the Aramaic Peshitta text of the beautiful Romans 5:7-8 states: ?Hardly would any man die for the sake of the wicked, but for the sake of the good, one might be willing to die. God has here manifested his love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners, the Messiah died for us.? In sharp contrast are all Greek versions of Romans 5:7: ?Indeed, rarely will anyone die for a righteous person, though perhaps for a good person someone might actually dare to die.? From where did this nonsense come? Obviously, the Greek translator mistranslated the Aramaic word that means ?wicked?. It is easy to show many other differences related to the translation of Aramaic words among numerous words used in the various Greek New Testament versions.

While the Peshitta appears to be perfect, the Greek texts are all seriously flawed. As noted above, the Greek scholars Barbara and Kurt Aland (1987) have pointed out that among the various Greek New Testament versions about one-third of the verses are significantly different. Most of those differences are associated with the faulty Alexandrian Greek text. These characteristics alone clearly show the Aramaic Peshitta to be the original and the Greek versions to be translations.

Otto (5/27/2014)