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How does James 3:9 translate from the Peshitta? - Printable Version

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How does James 3:9 translate from the Peshitta? - Sarah - 01-13-2014

Would someone who knows Aramaic/Syriac be wiling to translate the first half of James 3:9 word for word with MarYah from the Peshitta.
Lamasa translates it "with it we bless the Lord and Father . . . " With the divine name it is awkward, "With it we bless MarYah and Father . . "
Does Aramaic use Father without the article like that when speaking about Him?

Greek has our/the Lord and the Father

Are there articles or pronouns in the Aramaic? OR does it really not have them like Lamasa's translation indicates.

I finally got Tackston's Grammar, so I will eventually be able to figure these trivial things out on my own-Yay! <!-- sSmile --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="Smile" title="Smile" /><!-- sSmile --> meanwhile . . .

Sarah


Re: How does James 3:9 translate from the Peshitta? - Paul Younan - 01-13-2014

Sarah Wrote:Would someone who knows Aramaic/Syriac be wiling to translate the first half of James 3:9 word for word with MarYah from the Peshitta.
Lamasa translates it "with it we bless the Lord and Father . . . " With the divine name it is awkward, "With it we bless MarYah and Father . . "
Does Aramaic use Father without the article like that when speaking about Him?

Greek has our/the Lord and the Father

Are there articles or pronouns in the Aramaic? OR does it really not have them like Lamasa's translation indicates.

I finally got Tackston's Grammar, so I will eventually be able to figure these trivial things out on my own-Yay! <!-- sSmile --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="Smile" title="Smile" /><!-- sSmile --> meanwhile . . .

Sarah

Shlama Sarah,

In Aramaic, the definite is indicated by the state of the noun being Emphatic. The noun "Father" is the Emphatic form, so it's "the Father".

Also bear in mind, "MarYah" is not the Divine Name (although the title contains the shortened form of It) any more than "HalleluYah" is the divine name. (or, EliYah, YeremiYah, etc.)

MarYah is a title just like Abba is a title. The proper translation of James 3:9 is similar to Lamsa's version - although you could improve it by translating a bit more loosely: "With it we bless the LORD and Father, Yah." If you wanted to be ultra-literal, it's "with it we bless LORD-YAH and The Father", which comes across as awkward in English.

When translating from Semitic to Indo-European tongues you often need to re-arrange word order to make it smoother in translation.

+Shamasha


Re: How does James 3:9 translate from the Peshitta? - Charles Wilson - 01-22-2014

Found it!...Or at least an "it"..or something...

Anyway, from The Book of Genesis: Chapters 1-17, Victor Hamilton:

"The etymology of Nimrod is uncertain. Most writers have connected it with the Hebrew verb, Marad [[Note: M - "bar a" - r - a - d]], to "rebel". In the Haggadah, (T.B. Hag 13a; Pes. 94b) Nimrod is pictured as the prototype of rebellion, the builder of the Tower of Babel, and as the one who led the people in rebellion against God. Dahood has noted that at both Ebla and Ugarit some proper names combine an animal and a diety. He notes particularly Ugar. ni - mi - ri - ya (which he translates "panther of Yah"), which leads him to suggest that Nimrod means "panther of Haad" (i.e., Baal), analogous to nqmd ("victory of Haad") [10]
...
[10] M.J. Dahood, "Ebla, Ugarit and the Old Testament," TD 27, 1979, 129; idem, "Ebla, Ugarit and the Bible," in G. Pettinato, The Archives of Ebla: an Empire Inscribed in Clay , (Garden City, New York: Doubleday, 1981), p. 277.

This ties together a coupla' threads including greglaser and a Post I made. "MarYah" comes across 1000 years from the Sumerians to the Israelites as "LORD-YAH" but I still look at a possible word-play with "Immer-Yah" - "Lamb of God" and a reference to the 16th Mishmarot Service Group "Immer". Which leads to the "Lamb of God who appeared slain.." in Revelation 5+.

This gets deeper by the minute...

Thanx,

CW