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Aramaic-English literal translation of John 1:1-3? - Printable Version

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Aramaic-English literal translation of John 1:1-3? - positron - 11-08-2008

Peshitta word-by-word translation John 1:1-3
In the beginning (Alaph) existing was Word; that Word existing was toward Elohim (plural); Eloha (singular) existing was that Word. This existing was in the beginning toward Elohim. All things was through his hand, without him even nothing that was made.
Note: The substantive "is, are" in Aramaic is commonly omitted in most Aramaic-English translation. In this context, "is" translated to "existing" to see the difference.

Note: The phrase ???The Word??? is Miltha in Aramaic or logos in Greek. This is a progressive revelation of the Godhead and not a mathematical equation as God is a Spirit and neither physical nor mathematical in nature. So it is not right to equate God???s revelation with man???s arithmetic in these verses.

???The Word??? is eternal, having been in eternity apart from time, space and matter. The existence of Miltha, translated as ???The Word??? is independent of all time, space and matter and is only at its source. But Jesus is the source of the universe which is comprised of time, space and matter. Time, space and matter come into existence only after the creation of God.

I wonder whether the word "with" should be used in the translation of John 1:1 by Dr James Murdock.

Joh 1:1 In the beginning, was the Word; and the Word was with God; and the Word was God.
Joh 1:2 He was in the beginning with God.
Joh 1:3 Every thing was by his hand; and without him, was not any thing whatever that existed.


If I am not mistaken, the Aramaic word in Khabouris Codex that was translated to "with" in English is meant "to, toward, against" and not otherwise.

Anyone expert in Aramaic, please clarify the above translation on the above verses and its interpretation.

Thank you.

<!-- s:biggrin: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/biggrin.gif" alt=":biggrin:" title="Big Grin" /><!-- s:biggrin: -->


Re: Aramaic-English literal translation of John 1:1-3? - distazo - 11-29-2008

I'm no aramaic speaking/reading but
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.dukhrana.com/peshitta/peshitta_analyze_verse.php?verse=Matthew+6:1&font=Estrangelo+Edessa">http://www.dukhrana.com/peshitta/peshit ... elo+Edessa</a><!-- m --> shows that the same word 'to/toward' is used in that context.

Matthew 6:1
"...otherwise no reward is for you with your Father who is in heaven"