What would this audio reading be from exactly? I'm hoping to find a good audio reading from the Aramaic text that matches the reading of The Peshitta manuscripts.
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=iX7UVFiOx9k&t=1s



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The woman at the top is Jerusalem, and the woman at the bottom is Laodicea.  My wife drew this.  Notice the Peshitta quote from John 15:9.



According to the sword & shepherd’s staff symbol that I found encoded on the earth through the ancient text of the Book of Revelation, the completion of the Church of Laodicea is happening now (circa 2018-2020AD; Hebrew Year 5778-5780).  

What does it mean that the Laodicea church is complete?  I think it means we are beginning Revelation 12:15.
And according to the synchronicity of the gospel of Mark with Revelation (where Mark chapter 8 syncs with the Laodicea church of Rev 3:14-22), these words from Mark 8:34 are the ones I’d like to share today:

First, purchase some English bible flashcards featuring attractive biblical art: example

Second, type & print several short sentences and phrases from the Peshitta, such as ܘܩܪܐ ܐܢܘܢ ܝܫܘܥ ("And Yahshua called them.")

Third, tape one sentence/phrase to each flashcard (when there are bible verse numbers on the back of each flashcard, it will help you match the picture to gospel text).

Simple.

Can you find the mistake here in the UBS Peshitto text for Matthew 21:24?

ܥܢܐ ܝܫܘܥ ܘܐܡܪ ܠܗܘܢ ܐܫܐܠܟܘܢ ܐܦ ܐܢܐ ܡܠܬܐ ܚܕܐ ܘܐܢ ܬܐܡܪܘܢ ܠܝ ܘܐܦ ܐܢܐ ܐܡܪ ܐܢܐ ܠܟܘܢ ܒܐܝܢܐ ܫܘܠܛܢܐ ܗܠܝܢ ܥܒܕ ܐܢܐ ܀

Hello everbody,

quite a while ago, I found a comparison between the language of the Aramaic of Daniel as found in the MT and the Peshitta. Unfortunately I cannot locate it anymore.

Can any of you think of such a comparison? The manual work is tedious.

Thank you in advance, may the peace of God be with you.

Hello everyone --

John 6: 1 (RSV), (NIV), (Younan):

[1] After this Jesus went to the other side of the Sea of Galilee, which is the Sea of Tiber'i-as.

[1] Some time after this, Jesus crossed to the far shore of the Sea of Galilee (that is, the Sea of Tiberias),

[1] After these things went Yeshua...

I caught this one today when I was comparing a few verses against different translations and I request some help, please.

In Mark, we find that Jesus "crossed over" several times (Mark 6: 53, Mark 5: 21, Mark 4: 35).  With more than one translation, John 6: 1 reads "Jesus went...".  I noticed in one translation (NIV) that "Jesus crossed..." and that set off a few bells in my head (Don't tell my psychiatrist, it gets him worried about me...)

Which is it and why?


CW

https://www.loc.gov/collections/manuscri...ac&sb=date

http://www.thetextofthegospels.com/2017/...saint.html

Hi All,

What about the translation of Matthew 26:17 or Mark 14:12?
Markus 14:12

ܘܰܒ݂ܝܰܘܡܳܐ ܩܰܕ݂ܡܳܝܳܐ ܕ݁ܦ݂ܰܛܺܝܪܶܐ

It normally is translated as 'on the first day of the unleavened bread'
However, qadmoyo, is not an ordinal by definition, it also means 'before' (like in, standing before the king) or 'former' like in 'former days'.

So, would it be allowable / possible to translate it as on the day, before the unleavened bread?

However, that would ignore the 'daleth' prefix, genitive, of the 'unleavened bread'.

In revelation, we see the phrase: "On the first day of the week", there we see the word "ܘܰܒ݂ܝܰܘܡܳܐ ܕ݁ܚܰܕ݂ ܒ݁ܫܰܒ݁ܳܐ" where you see ܚܰܕ ((numeral) instead of qadam. However, in the NT, I cannot find enough idiom, which justifies my thoughts. 


Your thoughts, please

Matthew 13:55 "Wasn’t this the son of the carpenter,...."

One of the things that surprised me during my early studies of Aramaic was the rarity of pure adverbs. 

A pure adverb in Aramaic contains the suffix ܐܝܬ (“having”) because the noun “has” the quality of that verb.  See e.g., G. Kiraz, The New Syriac Primer (2007), p. 148 ("Adverbs in Syriac have the ending ܐܝܬ").

For example, there are only four of these ‘pure adverbs’* in the Crawford Codex of Revelation:

• 4:8 ܚܙܕܪܢܐܝܬ (“surrounding”)
  
• 11:8 ܪܘܚܢܐܝܬ (“spiritually”)
  
• 19:10 ܝܬܝܪܐܝܬ (“abundantly”)
  
• 21:16 ܡܪܒܥܐܝܬ (“four-square”)
  

• * Note, that I’m excluding from this list the following proper nouns, even though they have a root adverbial quality: two instances of ܥܒܪܐܝܬ (“Hebrew”) and one instance of  ܐܪܡܐܝܬ(“Aramaic”).  I’m also omitting complex quasi-adverbial conjugations like 4:8 ܐܪܒܥܬܝܗܝܢ (“being a foursome”).  Lastly, I'm simplifying the subject of Aramaic adverbs.