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Ac 9:29 And he spoke openly in the name of Jesus, and debated with the Jews who understood Greek; but they wanted to kill him.

What role does this play in the primacy debates? Does this show that Jews spoke Greek or is it being made a special point that these Jews spoke Greek (i.e. not all). If it is the latter, what of the verses where it says "Paul spoke to them in the Hebrew tongue (Aramaic probably) - do they then make a special point that he spoke in a language that normally he wouldn't?
Shlama Akhi,

I think this is making special mention of the fact that there were pockets of "Hellenistic Jews" in Jerusalem from other parts of the empire, whose first language was Greek. Paul happened to be arguing with these people at this time, in the Greek language most likely (as he spoke to the men of Athens in the Greek language.) These Hellenistic Jews were probably the ones who gave Stephen so much trouble (Acts 6:9-10.)

No one is arguing that Paul didn't know how to speak Greek. Or that he didn't know how to speak Aramaic, or Latin for that matter. Being able to speak in a language and writing in that same language are two totally different things.

Just because Paul could speak Greek, does not necessarily mean that he chose to write in that language. Josephus is a great example of someone, living in Rome, who composed his works first in Aramaic (the language he felt most comfortable composing in) and only later himself translated the same work into Greek - although according to his words. at great pains.