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Yochanan 7:15

"since not he has learned them".

Paul, wouldn't another, and better rendering be, "since not he was taught"? If so, is this a mistranslation by the Greek? btw the KJV says "learned" and Lamsa says "instructed".

I think this may have a potential of being supportive of the peshitta primacy, if the true reading is indeed "taught".
Shlama Akhi Byrnesey,

Indeed, the root "YLP" can mean "learn" or "teach", but I don't think so - how does the following verse make sense if the translation is "taught?"