Peshitta Forum

Shlama Akhay,

In the Bezan Greek text, we read with astonishment: <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/wink1.gif" alt="" title="Wink" /><!-- s -->

Quote:"But you irritated (??bar??nate) the Holy and Righteous One and asked for a murderer to be granted to you"

In all other Greek manuscripts, we read:

Quote:"But you denied (??rn??sasqe) the Holy and Righteous One and asked for a murderer to be granted to you"

The original Aramaic word used in Acts 3:14 is [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]Jwtrpk[/font] ("Kaparthon", you denied.) This was confused for [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]Jwtrdk[/font] ("Kadarthon", you irritated.) There is only 1 letter difference between the two words.

I love these "1 letter difference examples", but is bezan byzantine? and others is alex, western etc?

No, the Bezan text is what's known as the "Western text." It is known by the abbreviation "D" in textual criticism circles.

Silly me <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/happy.gif" alt="" title="Happy" /><!-- s --> Bezan = bezae

Man, manuscript D has provided us with so many split words etc, gotta love those Westerners

It is also, incidentally, the textual tradition that most scholars believe was the first Greek of the N.T.

What does that do for our cause? <!-- s:onfire: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/onfire.gif" alt=":onfire:" title="On Fire" /><!-- s:onfire: -->

What does it do Akh?

It's the "missing link" between the Aramaic text and the later, more refined, Alexandrian and Byzantine texts.

Yeah. Unfortunately, the Zorbans can say the same reversed... e.g. Western is the original Greek, heavily influenced by Semticisms, and was translated into Aramaic... Luckily we have all the proofs <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="" title="Smile" /><!-- s -->

The Zorbans can claim anything they want, of course. But until they show me Aramaic mistranslations from the Greek - it's all garbage.

How come we never see any "Polysemy" examples going the other way? (1 Greek word with 2 definitions, and the Aramaic texts split on how they translate?)

Shouldn't we see some of these 1-letter differences going the other way, too?

Is the Peshitta the only "perfect translation" in the history of translations?

Yeah u r 100% correct. Unfortunately they may use "multiple derivation" examples like the sheep example (ewes, rams) and claim that as split words lol

More like LMAO - what reason would an Aramaic translator have to vary a single word for "sheep" - 3 TIMES IN THE SAME PARAGRAPH? I can understand not paying attention or getting sleepy, but COME ON - he'd have to be stone drunk not to notice that one.

We're not talking about different manuscripts here disagreeing with one another based on multiple definitions of a single Greek word.