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question Wrote:Is YA (MRYA) the same as YaH (YHWH) ?

Of course it is! <!-- sConfusedhock: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/shocked.gif" alt="Confusedhock:" title="shocked" /><!-- sConfusedhock: -->

Think of the following names:
  • Eli-Ya (Elijah - "Ya is my God"), spelled in Aramaic [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]0yl0[/font]

    Khazqi-Ya (Hezekiah, "Stengthened of Ya"), spelled in Aramaic [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]0yqzx[/font]

    Aeram-Ya (Jeremiah, "Ya will uplift"), spelled in Aramaic [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]0ymr0[/font]

"Ya" is a contraction for 'YHWH' in Aramaic. Think of all the names that end in "-iah". <!-- sConfusedhock: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/shocked.gif" alt="Confusedhock:" title="shocked" /><!-- sConfusedhock: -->

[font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]0yrm[/font]
"Mar-Ya" is a compound title made up of the title "Mar" (Lord) and the contraction "Ya" and it means "The Lord YA" - which is the Aramaic cognate for "The Lord YHWH".

This is why the Peshitta TaNaKH, 100% of the time, translates YHWH as MRYA. <!-- sConfusedhock: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/shocked.gif" alt="Confusedhock:" title="shocked" /><!-- sConfusedhock: -->
Paul, do you reckon that the 'YAH' could possibly mean the vocative as is 'O'? Hence YAH HUVA could mean 'O He'? If so, maybe we could interpret MAR YAH as 'O He, the Lord'?
Looking forward to your opinion on this!
Gentile Wrote:Paul, do you reckon that the 'YAH' could possibly mean the vocative as is 'O'? Hence YAH HUVA could mean 'O He'? If so, maybe we could interpret MAR YAH as 'O He, the Lord'?
Looking forward to your opinion on this!

The YaH part of YaHWeH is essential for the tense of the verb (3rd person future singular of the verb "to be").

"Oh" is, well, just that "O!".

Additionally, with your YHWH to YHHW swap, you've mixed up the letters. Although they're similar phonetically, they are completely different from an etymological standpoint.

Shlomo,
-Steve-o
Gentile Wrote:Paul, do you reckon that the 'YAH' could possibly mean the vocative as is 'O'? Hence YAH HUVA could mean 'O He'? If so, maybe we could interpret MAR YAH as 'O He, the Lord'?
Looking forward to your opinion on this!

Shlama Gentile,

I gather from your question that you are very familiar with Arabic. <!-- sWink --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/wink1.gif" alt="Wink" title="Wink" /><!-- sWink -->

I understand why you raise this question. "Ya" in Arabic as a particle indeed means "O!", and is used to a great extent in that Semitic tongue.

This is not present in the Aramaic language.
Yes I am familar with this language due to my work, but I want to get into Aramaic as well. Sadly, as I have told you on PM's, there are not enough Aramaic dicitonaries around compared to Arabic [seeing as of course Arabic is a major world language in terms of numbers] AND more importantly, because there are so mnay scripts! Unfortunately most lexicons are in Serto which is so much tougher to read than Swadaya/Estrangelo/Ktav Ashuri [I even find Arabic cursive joined up words far easier to read even though it isnt my 1st language!].

Yes I thought initially it was the 3rd person of hvh but I was just enquiring as to the suggestion by someone that it meant 'Oh He'. Yet I am still puzzled as to where the idea of 'Lord' came into this word at all [seeing as the old Tanakhs LXX and Peshitta versions both use a word meaning 'Lord'?]. Kurios Mar

By the way Paul, I found 'Mar' used in an Arabic dictionary as well to mean 'lord'. Yet in everyday usage this seems to be 'rab'. Is there a word 'rab' in Aramaic at all which means 'lord' or 'master' or something similar? Is the Hebrew 'rabbi' also related to this? <!-- s8) --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/cool.gif" alt="8)" title="Cool" /><!-- s8) -->
Shlama Akhi,

The Peshitta OT invariably translates YHWH to MRYA.

Yes, "Rab" in all Semitic languages (beginning with ancient Akkadian) means "teacher, master, greater", etc.
Shlama Akhay,

For anyone still unsure of whether or not the Peshitta boldly proclaims that Yeshua IS Jehovah, here is the entry from Avraham's dictionary:

<center>
[Image: MarYa.jpg]

[Image: scriptures.jpg]
</center>
Akhi Paul, where can I get this dictionary?
Khati Christina,

Akhan Dean has a copy he provides over here:

<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.aramaicbooks.com/product_info.php?cPath=32&products_id=98">http://www.aramaicbooks.com/product_inf ... ucts_id=98</a><!-- m -->

-Shamasha Paul
Thanks a million akhi Paul, it's the clearest, most beautiful Aramaic dictionary I've ever seen <!-- s:biggrin: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/biggrin.gif" alt=":biggrin:" title="Big Grin" /><!-- s:biggrin: -->
Sorry Paul isn't it the Oraham dictionary not the Avraham? Unfortunately it's in my nature to be pedantic <!-- sConfusedigh: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/sigh.gif" alt="Confusedigh:" title="Sigh" /><!-- sConfusedigh: -->
jookieapc Wrote:Sorry Paul isn't it the Oraham dictionary not the Avraham? Unfortunately it's in my nature to be pedantic <!-- sConfusedigh: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/sigh.gif" alt="Confusedigh:" title="Sigh" /><!-- sConfusedigh: -->

Me too.

Pronunciation depends on one's dialect. Tomaaaytoe, tomaaahtoe. It's all good.
Yes (mor:yo`) does correlate back to YHWH of the OT. But, if anyone is interested, try taking a look at the use of (mor:yo`) or "Mar Yah" in Matay 22: 43 & 45. Maybe it is just me, but I believe there to be an illogical pattern in its use in those two verses. If anyone else sees it as well, then I think there may be a grammatical answer to it, as to how (mor:yo`), or more specifically the (:yo`) suffix is actually rendered in the Aramaic.
Yes...that is quite a strange pair of verses. The parallel verses (Mark 12:37, Luke 20:44) both read Mari.
I did a Google search to see if anyone else picked up on it but only found "proofs that Yeshua is YHWH"
What say you to this?
Aaron, I contemplated that argument as well. But my theory is a grammatical one.

(moro`) = "the-master" or "a-master", depending upon context; most often signifying Yeshua, or maybe just "a-master of-the-house".
(mor:yo`) = "that-the-master" or "that-a-master", depending upon context; most often signifying YHWH of the OT, but not always.

Maybe it isn't rendered quite right yet, but this may give the reader some leeway to believe that the intent of the verse is for "that-a-master" to refer back to "my-master".

... And-how-as-this Dawiyd, in-spirit, calling to-him 'that-a-master'? Saying thus, "Of-said that-the-Master to my-master, 'Sit to-thee from my-right until of-I-to-put thy-enemies below thy-feet.'" If such-for Dawiyd calling to-him 'that-a-master', how-as-this his-son he-be?
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