Peshitta Forum

Shlama Shamasha Paul,

Why does in Acts 1:19 of Peshitta text have explanation of Khagel-Dema to Aramaic-speaking Palestine of 1st century, as it is written in Greek source/Bible? or it is not for Aramaic-speaking Palestine of 1st century (at this case)?


Source: wwww.peshitta.org

Tawdee.

Rudolf <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="" title="Smile" /><!-- s -->

Hi Rudolf. This example has been explained many times on this forum for years. Please search the posts so we don't wind up answering the same question over and over again.

Thank you
+Shamasha

This is most likely translating to a different dialect (as in Mark 15:34) or simply clarifying the meaning of the phrase, as in Mark 3:17.

Paul Younan Wrote:Hi Rudolf. This example has been explained many times on this forum for years. Please search the posts so we don't wind up answering the same question over and over again.

Thank you
+Shamasha

Ok, Shamasha Paul, tawdee.