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Larry Kelsey

Shlama Akhay,

My pastor in Kansas City who taught Beginning, Intermediate and Advanced New Testament Greek, used the expression 'continuous action verb' from time to time in his teachings and sermons.
From Aramaic linguistics we have verbal conjugations that emphasize repeated action as well. For instance, in Yaqub 1:14 the word [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]Grgrtmw [/font] "w'Methraghragh" is used to denote a state of repeatedly desiring something.
The verbal conjugation is Ethpalpal. I'm sure you can see the connection between the repeated 'pal' syllable and the repeated 'ragh' syllable in "w'Methraghragh".
I'm saying this based on something I found Wilson's Old Testament Word Studies. This author mentions two verbal conjugations called Pealal andPilpel .
The introduction reads as follows:

3. Pealal; as lXlXq , with repetition of the last two stem-letters, used especially of slight motions repeated in quick succession, e.g. rxrxs, to go about with quick motion, hence (of the heart) to palpitate; Psalm 38:10, from rxs, to go about; (This instance is given as Pilpel' as opposed to 'Pealal' at <!-- w --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.blueletterbible.org">http://www.blueletterbible.org</a><!-- w -->)
pass. rmrmx, to ferment with violence, to make a rumbling sound, Lam. 1:20

4. Pilpel.-- This also is used of motion rapidly repeated , which all languages are prone to express by repetition of the same sound, as ??cpc, to chirp; lclc, to tinkle; rgrg, to gurgle; ??vpv, to flutter (from ????v, to fly).

Any comments??

Shlama w'Burkate, Larry Kelsey
It would be interesting to find out if "continuous action verbs" existed in Greek prior to translations from Semitic languages (i.e., the LXX and the NT <!-- sBig Grin --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/happy.gif" alt="Big Grin" title="Happy" /><!-- sBig Grin --> )

If not, then there definitely would be a case for this being a marker of translation from a Semitic language.