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i don't know if this is a proof for Aramaic primacy or not, but i'm sharing it here because it is sufficiently strange enough for me to hope someone else can shed better light on it.

alrighty, in most cases in the Greek, Jerusalem is rendered something like HEIROSOLEEM (Paul's letters / transliterated form) or HEIROSALEEMA (Gospels / Hellenized form).

i've run across 2 instances, though, where the term is rendered HEIROSOLUMOIS (John 2:23 & Acts 16:4), which is the plural form in Greek. it would be like saying "Jerusalems." that sounds very odd to me. the text i've seen this in is the Westcott-Hort / Tischendorf versions.

understanding that the original Hebrew is YERUSHALAYEEM, being plural in ending, and the Aramaic basically preserves the Hebrew through transliteration, i have to wonder if somehow the scribe noticed the plural ending and for *some reason* translated it into Greek as such in those two instances.

i recognize the weakness of such a possibility, but i'm at a loss for a stronger explanation. any help or suggestions would be appreciated. i'm attempting to note textual anomalies and this one left me scratching my head.

thanks in advance!

Chayim b'Moshiach,