Why does John uses greek word 'Parakletos' and not aramaic word or idiom with the same meaning? See here:
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.dukhrana.com/peshitta/concordance.php?adr=2:17268&font=Estrangelo+Edessa&size=150">http://www.dukhrana.com/peshitta/concor ... a&size=150</a><!-- m -->%
Hi,
If you mean: WHy does the Peshitta have Greek words? Well, Aramaic has Greek loan-words, just like the Aramaic book Daniel (OT) has.
However, the word paraclete in Greek, happens to have a consonant in Aramaic (According to Paul Younan) Paraq+Qlayta which means 'ending-a-curse'.
So, I wonder if this word really is having a Greek origin. In Greek it means 'helper' which is quite different to the Aramaic meaning.
Something happend like this with the word 'Barbarian' which in Greek means a 'unculturized person' in Aramaic it is Bar-Baria (son of the outside).
distazo Wrote:However, the word paraclete in Greek, happens to have a consonant in Aramaic (According to G.W. Bauscher) Paraq+Qlayta which means 'ending-a-curse'.
Thank you for such a fast answer! This is precisely what I was looking for!