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Is this true?
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Quote: This is why in Jeremiah 4: 10 we read in the King James:

".....Ah, Lord God! surely thou hast greatly deceived this

The Aramaic reads:

".....Ah, Lord God! I have greatly deceived this people...."

The translator's confusion is due to the position of a dot,
for the position of a dot frequently determines the meaning of a

In Isaiah 43: 28, the King James version reads:

"Therefore I have profaned the princes of the

The Aramaic reads:

".....Your princes have profaned my sanctuary....."

This error was caused by misunderstanding of a passive
plural verb. The same error occurs in John 12: 40, which in the
Eastern Text reads:

".....Their eyes have become blind....." instead of
"......He has blinded their eyes....."

In Isaiah 14: 12, the Aramaic word AILEL, to howl, is
confused by the Hebrew word HELEL, light. The reference here is
to the king of Babylon and not to Lucifer.

In Psalm 22: 29, the King James version, we read:

"All they that be fat upon the earth shall eat and
worship....and none can keep alive his own soul."

The Aramaic text reads:

"All who are hungry (for truth) shall eat and
soul is alive to him."

The error in this instance is due to the confusion of the
Aramaic words which have some resemblance. Some of these words
when written by hand resemble each other.