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Shlama,

I recently ran across the form [font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]00tmy=[/font] <!-- sHuh --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/huh.gif" alt="Huh" title="Huh" /><!-- sHuh --> in the Peshitta in 1 Timothy 6:20. this is the only time in the Peshitta it is written this way. the rest is the familiar [font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]Sw0tmy=[/font]

A cross-reference to the Greek also is reading Timothee. it also appears in 1:18 in the Greek in that same spelling.

I checked around on the web for an answer, but I didn't see anything, so I thought maybe someone here could shed more light on it.... thanks!


Chayim b'Moshiach,
Jeremy
mmm,

you're right! Keep on finding such things.

I think that it is the same as in our age. When you like somebody very much, you call him/her by an alternative shortened name, that is 'allowed' only because of friendship.

You see that often in Russian tradition as well.
distazo Wrote:mmm,

you're right! Keep on finding such things.

I think that it is the same as in our age. When you like somebody very much, you call him/her by an alternative shortened name, that is 'allowed' only because of friendship.

You see that often in Russian tradition as well.

Shlama,

yeah, definitely appears to be an endearing rendition, but i was wondering if there was any knowledge of whether or not this version of his name is attested-to in Syriac-speaking communities (is it a normal occurance?), or is it possibly a Greek thing?

I couldn't find any info anywhere else....

Chayim b'Moshiach,
Jeremy
Hi,

Timothy lived in a 'multi-cultural' situation.
He is being called a son of an Aramaic father.
Probably the facts were complicate.
Syria, as a former Greek colony, might have many Greek descendants who were half-Aramaic-half-Greek.

<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.mfnames.com/mnames/t/origin-and-meaning-of-timothy.htm">http://www.mfnames.com/mnames/t/origin- ... imothy.htm</a><!-- m -->

Besides, I have been trying to find historical evidence of the social relationship and attitude between Greek and in former Seleucid territory living people.
It might explain why the ARamaic Bible has Timothy as son of an Aramaic Father but in the Greek Bible as from a Greek father.
Here's another similar variation:
In Acts 10:3, Acts 10:31, rather than [font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]swylnrwq[/font] (Qawrniliyaws), his name is spoken by YHWH as [font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]0ylnrwq[/font] (Qawrniliye)

It's possible that this variant can be better explained than, and can possibly shed light on, the Timothee variant.
Shlama all,

See this thread for the discussion of Cornelius:
http://peshitta.org/forum/viewtopic.php?...ius#p12436

The conclusion was that the Peshitta had the Aramaic spelling of the name Cornelius in Latin vocative case, reflecting that the angel was most likely addressing Cornelius in Latin, his mother tongue (being of the Italian regiment).

With Timothy, it seems something similar is at work, except that the Peshitta Aramaic does not have the vocative case spelling in all cases that the Greek does. In particular, Timothy is in vocative case in Greek only for 1 Tim 1:18 and 1 Tim 6:20. In the former case, Timothy is spelled Timotheos like a Greek nominative, but in the latter case, we find it spelled as Timothee like the Greek vocative. The latter case also has the vocative emphasized with the particle "O" present in both Greek and the Peshitta, spelled differently in Greek and Aramaic, naturally.

I'm not sure what to make of the slight difference between the Greek and the Peshitta. Both Aramaic-to-Greek and Greek-to-Aramaic explanations of this seem plausible to me.

bar Sinko
And yet another:

Agrippa
Festus and Luke always refer to him as [font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]Swprg0[/font] (Agripaws).
When talking to Agrippa, Paul exclusively refers to him as [font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]0prg0[/font] (Agripe),
yet once when speaking to Festus, Paul calls him Agripaws. (Acts 26:26).

Any Greek scholars want to propose that a crooked translator schemed this dichotomy into existence?

See <!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://dukhrana.com/lexicon/lexeme.php?adr=1:28">http://dukhrana.com/lexicon/lexeme.php?adr=1:28</a><!-- m --> for a complete concordance for both variants of Agrippa.

Another smaller instance is Aniyas (Acts 9:33) / Aniya (Acts 9:34)
Aaron S Wrote:And yet another:

Agrippa
Festus and Luke always refer to him as [font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]Swprg0[/font] (Agripaws).
When talking to Agrippa, Paul exclusively refers to him as [font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]0prg0[/font] (Agripe),
yet once when speaking to Festus, Paul calls him Agripaws. (Acts 26:26).

Any Greek scholars want to propose that a crooked translator schemed this dichotomy into existence?

See <!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://dukhrana.com/lexicon/lexeme.php?adr=1:28">http://dukhrana.com/lexicon/lexeme.php?adr=1:28</a><!-- m --> for a complete concordance for both variants of Agrippa.

Another smaller instance is Aniyas (Acts 9:33) / Aniya (Acts 9:34)


Shlama, akhi

thanks for the heads-up on Agrippa.

as for Aniyas, check out this thread that deals ore specifically with it:
<!-- l --><a class="postlink-local" href="http://www.peshitta.org/forum/viewtopic.php?f=8&t=96">viewtopic.php?f=8&t=96</a><!-- l -->

Chayim b'Moshiach,
Jeremy
[font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]0pylyp[/font] (Filipe) appears once (in John 14:9)
In all other places, it's [font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]Swpylyp[/font] (Filipaws)

John 14:9 - Yeshua said to him: Have I been all this time with you, and you have not known me, Filipe? He who sees me, sees the Father: and how do you say, ?Show us the Father??

Search Dukhrana Lexicon for Root 'pylypws' for details (second to last row for Filipe)