12-17-2009, 03:57 PM
Shlama all,
I noticed that in the Peshitta for Luke 1:3 and Acts 1:1 the person to whom the books are addressed doesn't seem like it should be pronounced "Tawpeela" according to the vowel points. Rather, the vowel points support the pronunciation "Teofile" (teh-oh-fee-leh) under the Western system and "Teopila" (teh-oh-pee-luh) under the Eastern. These pronunciations match what is written in the Greek texts, which if I'm not mistaken, is the Greek vocative case of Theophilus.
Therefore, I think the Greek NT and the Peshitta match and agree on this point. It appears that the Peshitta has used a name of Greek origin, and it has been only lightly Aramaicized. The pronunciation isn't "Tawpeela" but "Teofile" which makes clear the name's Greek origin. Am I missing something here?
bar Sinko
I noticed that in the Peshitta for Luke 1:3 and Acts 1:1 the person to whom the books are addressed doesn't seem like it should be pronounced "Tawpeela" according to the vowel points. Rather, the vowel points support the pronunciation "Teofile" (teh-oh-fee-leh) under the Western system and "Teopila" (teh-oh-pee-luh) under the Eastern. These pronunciations match what is written in the Greek texts, which if I'm not mistaken, is the Greek vocative case of Theophilus.
Therefore, I think the Greek NT and the Peshitta match and agree on this point. It appears that the Peshitta has used a name of Greek origin, and it has been only lightly Aramaicized. The pronunciation isn't "Tawpeela" but "Teofile" which makes clear the name's Greek origin. Am I missing something here?
bar Sinko