07-24-2009, 07:57 AM
In matthew 26:64 Jesus tells the high priest that he will see the son of man coming on the clouds of heaven. The high priest then says Jesus has blasphened.
It almost looks as if the high priest thinks Jesus has said THIS son of man, not THE son of man.
Is the Aramaic ambiguous here? Could it read THIS son of man?
It almost looks as if the high priest thinks Jesus has said THIS son of man, not THE son of man.
Is the Aramaic ambiguous here? Could it read THIS son of man?