11-05-2008, 06:17 AM
Shlama,
i've been tromping around in MARI, and the following made me wonder:
Romans 9:3
For I could wish that myself were accursed from Christ for my brethren, my kinsmen according to the flesh:
(KJV)
the term "wish/desire" is across the board in the different texts that i've checked thus far, so the above version is merely a typical example of the Greek reading, and yet the Peshitta reads instead the very different term [font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]0lc[/font], meaning "pray."
being no variants in the texts that i can find, i turned to the lexicon, and ran across this:
one of the Aramaic terms for "desire" happens to be [font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]0bc[/font].
The letters beyt and lomadh are structurally similar, and thus a scribal misreading of the lomadh as a beyt could easily account for the difference in the reading of the Greek text.
any thoughts?
Chayim b'Moshiach,
Jeremy
i've been tromping around in MARI, and the following made me wonder:
Romans 9:3
For I could wish that myself were accursed from Christ for my brethren, my kinsmen according to the flesh:
(KJV)
the term "wish/desire" is across the board in the different texts that i've checked thus far, so the above version is merely a typical example of the Greek reading, and yet the Peshitta reads instead the very different term [font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]0lc[/font], meaning "pray."
being no variants in the texts that i can find, i turned to the lexicon, and ran across this:
one of the Aramaic terms for "desire" happens to be [font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]0bc[/font].
The letters beyt and lomadh are structurally similar, and thus a scribal misreading of the lomadh as a beyt could easily account for the difference in the reading of the Greek text.
any thoughts?
Chayim b'Moshiach,
Jeremy