Hello,
Could someone give me insight on the translation (the G. Bausch edition) of Revelation 1:8 that ends with: "He who holds all."
According to Lamsa, it is: "The Almighty".
But for me, the leap is too big to understand this difference.
Thanks for any insights...
Shlama Akhi Distazo,
The phrase "d'akhyd kol" literally means "He who holds all" ; this phrase is an idiom used only for God as "The Almighty", which is why I highlighted the Aramaic phrase in purple letters in the color edition -(most idioms are marked in purple letters), available as a download for $9.99, or in color printed edition for $139.99 (B&W edition is $39.99 in 6x9 size). I also have a note on this idiom in Hebrews 1:3, where it first occurs, in my Original Aramaic New Testament in Plain English. It occurs 10 times in The Aramaic NT; nine of them are in Revelation.
Glenn David Bauscher
Hello Brother,
I have the color download from lulu.com. Nice work. But I have not done Hebrews yet, but went to Revelation <!-- s
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Thanks for the clarification and next time I'll try to find a note on such phrase. (although, that is very slow in Adobe Reader)
gbausc Wrote:Shlama Akhi Distazo,
The phrase "d'akhyd kol" literally means "He who holds all" ; this phrase is an idiom used only for God as "The Almighty", which is why I highlighted the Aramaic phrase in purple letters in the color edition -(most idioms are marked in purple letters), available as a download for $9.99, or in color printed edition for $139.99 (B&W edition is $39.99 in 6x9 size). I also have a note on this idiom in Hebrews 1:3, where it first occurs, in my Original Aramaic New Testament in Plain English. It occurs 10 times in The Aramaic NT; nine of them are in Revelation.
Glenn David Bauscher
Shlama Akhi Dave:
I'm not an Aramaic scholar, but I can read it a little. The phrase [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]
Lk dyx0d[/font] "d'akhid kol" found in the Crawford Revelation 1:8, is two words. The first "akhid" with the proclitic "d" would appear to mean "that/whom - (is) one" and the second "kol" means "all". Therefore the phrase used in English to describe "The Almighty" is literally "The ALL Whom is ONE". This phrase appears to consolidate the Sh'ma "Hear O Israel the LORD our GOD the LORD is ONE" (Deuteronomy 6:4) with the ONE that created Heaven and earth and
ALL that is in them (Genesis 1:31 and 2:1).
Another interpretation of [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]
Lk dyx0d[/font] "d'akhid kol" could mean "The ALL (meaning Elohim, since Elohim the is in the pleural form and present during creation) "Whom is One" (which explains that Elohim acts as a unified Creator). The Hebrew "ekhad" (Alef-Khet-Dalet) has a unique development throughout the TaNaKh as it is the name given to the first day "Yom Ekhad", which shows its complex unity of day and night, evening and morning. After some 100 uses in the TORAH it is used in the Sh'ma in Deuteronomy 6:4 to affirm the UNITY of Elohim. I find this fascinating, for the chronological use of the word seems to articulate just how the word is to be used and seems to culminate in the Sh'ma.
Curiously, the Peshitta AN"K (Peshitta Old Testament) substitutes the singular Eloha for GOD, as it does in the Peshitta New Testament. It would appear that Elohim (pleural-masculine) was only destined to be articulated in Hebrew. This may have been deliberate since in any other language the pleural form of god would mean false deities. Only in the Hebrew scriptures is the pleural form of GOD not equivalent to pan-theism.
Shlama,
Stephen
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Shlama Akhi Stephen,
Just back from 3 day anniversary vacation with my wife in Rhode Island.
You are confusing Hebrew "ekhad" - "one" with Aramaic "ekhad" -"to hold" .The Aramaic for "one" is "Khad","Khada".
The Aramaic "Akhyd" can mean "joined",unified", but that would mean God is one with the universe, which would make him a part of creation, which is theological nonsense. God is "One", or "Unified" with His Divine Being as Three Persons in One Essence of Deity; He cannot be One with that which is not Divine.
As passive participle of "ekhad", it can have an active sense as well as passive-"to hold", and is used in the NT over 50 times. Never does it mean "one".
Smith's Compendious Syriac Dictionary:
Quote:"Akhyd kol" is constsntly used of God= "omnipotent","holding all" or "upholding all".
Blessings,
Dave
gbausc Wrote:Shlama Akhi Stephen,
Just back from 3 day anniversary vacation with my wife in Rhode Island.
You are confusing Hebrew "ekhad" - "one" with Aramaic "ekhad" -"to hold" .The Aramaic for "one" is "Khad","Khada".
The Aramaic "Akhyd" can mean "joined",unified", but that would mean God is one with the universe, which would make him a part of creation, which is theological nonsense. God is "One", or "Unified" with His Divine Being as Three Persons in One Essence of Deity; He cannot be One with that which is not Divine.
As passive participle of "ekhad", it can have an active sense as well as passive-"to hold", and is used in the NT over 50 times. Never does it mean "one".
Smith's Compendious Syriac Dictionary:
Quote:"Akhyd kol" is constsntly used of God= "omnipotent","holding all" or "upholding all".
Blessings,
Dave
Blessings on you as well Dave.
We agree that it is theologically incorrect to say that GOD is the universe. I was exploring the phrase [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]
Lk dyx0d[/font] "d'akhid kol" and thinking out loud, so to speak. I stand corrected and agree with you. Good work. <!-- s:oha: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/oha.gif" alt=":oha:" title="Oha!" /><!-- s:oha: -->
Quote:"Akhyd kol" used in Crawford Revelation 1:8 literally means "omnipotent", "holding all" or "upholding all".
Shlama,
Stephen
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gbausc Wrote:Quote:"Akhyd kol" is constsntly used of God= "omnipotent","holding all" or "upholding all".
Blessings,
Dave
Who was speaking in Revelation 1:8? Textus Receptus mentions says the LORD while Murdock Peshitta Translation uses says LORD GOD.
Rev 1:8 I am Alpha, also Omega, saith the Lord God; who is, and was, and is to come, the omnipotent. (Murdock Peshitta)
Is He Lord Jesus speaking or Lord God the Father was speaking at Rev 1:8?