05-14-2008, 07:56 AM
This question is based on a book, written by Nehemiah Gordon 'the Greek Jesus vs the Hebrew Yeshua'.
In that book, he has examined the Shem Tov hebrew Matthew. Asides from the fact, that also Nehemiah Gordon finds a lot of that manipulated, he also finds lines, that seem original.
For example, in Matthew 23, where Jesus speaks against the Pharisees according to the Greek text, He seems to say: "Do according to what they say, but not according to what they do!"
But would Jesus -really- encourage his disciples, to DO what they Say? That would be a huge contradiction, since the Pharisees were asking things which were not in the Tanakh and caused a great burden on common people.
So, the clue of his story: "The hebrew does not write 'do as THEY say' but do as 'HE' says'. The 'He' would refer to Moses as refered in vs 2.
2 And he said to them, The scribes and the Pharisees sit on the chair of Moses.
3 Therefore whatever they tell (he = Moses says?) you to obey, obey and do it, but do not do
according to their works; for they say and do not.
The hebrew word for 'they' is not 'they' but he, as Gordon states. (ps: I'm not being complete in argumentation, just a short note of his story!)
MY QUESTION: What does the aramaic text show about this? Is it also allowing 'he' instead of 'they'?
In that book, he has examined the Shem Tov hebrew Matthew. Asides from the fact, that also Nehemiah Gordon finds a lot of that manipulated, he also finds lines, that seem original.
For example, in Matthew 23, where Jesus speaks against the Pharisees according to the Greek text, He seems to say: "Do according to what they say, but not according to what they do!"
But would Jesus -really- encourage his disciples, to DO what they Say? That would be a huge contradiction, since the Pharisees were asking things which were not in the Tanakh and caused a great burden on common people.
So, the clue of his story: "The hebrew does not write 'do as THEY say' but do as 'HE' says'. The 'He' would refer to Moses as refered in vs 2.
2 And he said to them, The scribes and the Pharisees sit on the chair of Moses.
3 Therefore whatever they tell (he = Moses says?) you to obey, obey and do it, but do not do
according to their works; for they say and do not.
The hebrew word for 'they' is not 'they' but he, as Gordon states. (ps: I'm not being complete in argumentation, just a short note of his story!)
MY QUESTION: What does the aramaic text show about this? Is it also allowing 'he' instead of 'they'?